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PMI-001 Project Management Professional v5 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process?

Options:

A.

Develop preliminary project scope statement

B.

Close Project or Phase

C.

Develop project charter

D.

Create WBS

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Questions 5

Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget

B.

Limited project manager authority, limited resource availability, and a part-time project manager's role

C.

Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full-time project manager's role

D.

High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff

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Questions 6

The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

Options:

A.

A risk urgency assessment.

B.

The scope baseline.

C.

Work performance information.

D.

Procurement audits.

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Questions 7

The end point of a project phase can be referred to as:

Options:

A.

project failure

B.

closing process

C.

stage gate

D.

lifecycle

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Questions 8

Which of the Project Time Management processes analyzes activity sequencing, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

ControlSchedule

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Develop Schedule

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Questions 9

Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Quality Metrics

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Plan Quality

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Questions 10

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?

Options:

A.

Issue log

B.

Change log

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Change requests

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Questions 11

An input to the Control Quality process is:

Options:

A.

Activity attributes

B.

Quality control measurements

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Deliverables

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Questions 12

Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:

Options:

A.

Change control

B.

Configuration control

C.

Project monitoring and control

D.

Issue control

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Questions 13

An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:

Options:

A.

Source selection criteria.

B.

Market research.

C.

A stakeholder register.

D.

A records management system.

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Questions 14

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

Options:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

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Questions 15

Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 16

Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

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Questions 17

A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?

Options:

A.

Plan Stakeholder Management

B.

Identify Stakeholders

C.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

D.

Control Stakeholder Engagement

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Questions 18

A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Requirements document

C.

Project charter

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 19

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Internal

C.

Mandatory

D.

Discretionary

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Questions 20

Inputs to Identifying Stakeholders include:

Options:

A.

Project charter, procurement documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

B.

Project charter, stakeholder analysis, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

C.

Project charter, stakeholder analysis, enterprise environmental factors, and stakeholder management strategy.

D.

Project charter, procurement documents, expert judgment, and organizational process assets.

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Questions 21

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

Options:

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

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Questions 22

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

Options:

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

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Questions 23

Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?

Options:

A.

Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach

B.

Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach

C.

Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach

D.

As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach

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Questions 24

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

Options:

A.

Compromising

B.

Collaborating

C.

Smoothing

D.

Problem Solving

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Questions 25

What do composite organizations involve?

Options:

A.

Functional and project managers

B.

Functional managers only

C.

Project managers only

D.

Technical managers and project managers

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Questions 26

A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:

Options:

A.

Require communication technology that is not readily available.

B.

Create difficulties when including people with disabilities.

C.

Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts.

D.

Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.

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Questions 27

When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?

Options:

A.

Negative

B.

Zero

C.

Positive

D.

Free

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Questions 28

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

Options:

A.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B.

Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

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Questions 29

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

Options:

A.

Continuous improvement.

B.

Predictive planning.

C.

Progressive elaboration.

D.

Quality assurance.

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Questions 30

An input to the Identify Risks process is the:

Options:

A.

Risk register.

B.

Risk probability and impact assessment.

C.

Communications management plan.

D.

Risk management plan.

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Questions 31

The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:

Options:

A.

Work packages.

B.

Accepted deliverables.

C.

The WBS dictionary.

D.

The scope baseline.

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Questions 32

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

Options:

A.

Strategic plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Project management plan

D.

Service level agreement

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Questions 33

Cost aggregation is typically performed by aggregating work packages in accordance with the:

Options:

A.

Program evaluation and review technique (PERT).

B.

Cost of quality (COQ).

C.

Rough order of magnitude (ROM).

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

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Questions 34

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

PMI-001 Question 34

Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?

Options:

A.

0.83

B.

0.9

C.

1.11

D.

1.33

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Questions 35

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

Options:

A.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

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Questions 36

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

Options:

A.

objectives

B.

schedule

C.

product

D.

approach

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Questions 37

Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success. Who is responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor?

Options:

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Functional manager supported by the project manager

D.

Project management office

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Questions 38

What is project management?

Options:

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

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Questions 39

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

Options:

A.

Functional managers and manager of project managers

B.

Functional managers only

C.

Project managers only

D.

Technical managers and project managers

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Questions 40

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

Options:

A.

in line with a measured degree of conformity.

B.

out of the hands of the customer.

C.

in a specified range of acceptable results.

D.

out of the process.

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Questions 41

An output of the Close Project (or Close Phase) process is:

Options:

A.

accepted deliverables

B.

organizational process asset updates

C.

work performance information

D.

project management plan updates

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Questions 42

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Develop Schedule

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Questions 43

Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:

Options:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Context diagrams

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Questions 44

Which of the following is a measure of the value of work completed compared to the actual cost or progress made on the project?

Options:

A.

Schedule performance index (SPI)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

Cost variance (CV)

D.

Planned value (PV)

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Questions 45

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Parametric estimating

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Questions 46

Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

Options:

A.

Cost-reimbursable contracts

B.

Time and Material contracts (T&M)

C.

Fixed-price contracts

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

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Questions 47

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

PMI-001 Question 47

Options:

A.

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.

Precedence diagramming

C.

Project schedule network diagramming

D.

Mathematical analysis diagramming

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Questions 48

Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:

Options:

A.

Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.

B.

Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.

C.

Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.

D.

Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.

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Questions 49

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.

Keep satisfied

B.

Keep informed

C.

Manage closely

D.

Monitor

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Questions 50

Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.

Performance report

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Requested changes

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 51

Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

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Questions 52

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

Options:

A.

cost management plan.

B.

risk management plan,

C.

activity list,

D.

risk register.

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Questions 53

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Cost baseline

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Questions 54

Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?

Options:

A.

Customers

B.

Project sponsors

C.

Project management team

D.

Insurance claims department

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Questions 55

Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Enterprise environmental factors

C.

Stakeholder register

D.

Organizational process assets

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Questions 56

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Networking

B.

Training

C.

Negotiation

D.

Issue log

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Questions 57

Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?

Options:

A.

Flowcharting

B.

Earned value

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Pareto analysis

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Questions 58

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

Options:

A.

corrective action.

B.

preventive action.

C.

non-conformance report,

D.

defect repair.

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Questions 59

Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?

Options:

A.

Cost baseline

B.

Service level agreement

C.

Memorandum of understanding

D.

Business case

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Questions 60

Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Define Scope

D.

Define Activities

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Questions 61

An input to the Create WBS process is a:

Options:

A.

project charter.

B.

stakeholder register.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements traceability matrix.

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Questions 62

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

Options:

A.

majority rule technique.

B.

nominal group technique.

C.

Delphi technique,

D.

idea/mind mapping technique.

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Questions 63

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

Options:

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

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Questions 64

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

Options:

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

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Questions 65

An input to Conduct Procurements is:

Options:

A.

Independent estimates.

B.

Selected sellers.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Resource calendars.

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Questions 66

An input to the Manage Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

Work performance reports.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Activity resource requirements.

D.

Enterprise environmental factors.

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Questions 67

In which process might you use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

Options:

A.

Qualitative risk analysis

B.

Risk monitoring and control

C.

Monitor and control project work

D.

Risk response planning

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Questions 68

Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?

Options:

A.

Internal failure costs

B.

Prevention costs

C.

Appraisal costs

D.

External failure costs

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Questions 69

Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

Options:

A.

Human resource planning

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Critical chain method

D.

Rolling wave planning

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Questions 70

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

Options:

A.

Variance Analysis

B.

Define Scope

C.

Verify Scope

D.

Control Scope

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Questions 71

Which type of control tool identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

Options:

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Control Charts

C.

Pareto Chart

D.

Histogram

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Questions 72

Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?

Options:

A.

Project Plan

B.

Responsibility Matrix

C.

Issue Log

D.

Scope Document

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Questions 73

On what is project baseline development established?

Options:

A.

Approved product requirements

B.

Estimated project cost and schedule

C.

Actual project cost and schedule

D.

Revised project cost and schedule

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Questions 74

At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:

Options:

A.

low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

B.

low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

C.

high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

D.

high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

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Questions 75

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

Options:

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Project breakdown structure (PBS)

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Questions 76

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

Options:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

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Questions 77

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Risk register

C.

Change requests

D.

Risk response plan

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Questions 78

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

change requests

B.

team performance assessments

C.

project staff assignments

D.

project documents updates

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Questions 79

Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?

Options:

A.

Vendor bid analysis

B.

Three-point estimates

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Reserve analysis

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Questions 80

Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

Options:

A.

Program

B.

Functional

C.

Project

D.

Portfolio

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Questions 81

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Quality Control.

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Questions 82

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

Options:

A.

Resource leveling and fast tracking

B.

Fast tracking and crashing

C.

Crashing and applying leads and lags

D.

Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

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Questions 83

Design of experiments (DOE) should be used during which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Assurance

B.

Total Quality Management

C.

Perform Quality Control

D.

Plan Quality

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Questions 84

External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:

Options:

A.

Customers.

B.

Business partners.

C.

Sellers.

D.

Functional managers.

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Questions 85

In which of the following types of organizations is resource availability moderate to high?

Options:

A.

Weak matrix

B.

Balanced matrix

C.

Strong matrix

D.

Projectized

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Questions 86

The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

Options:

A.

sponsor

B.

customer

C.

business partners

D.

functional managers

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Questions 87

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

Options:

A.

part-time

B.

full-time

C.

occasional

D.

unlimited

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Questions 88

Which of the following processes is necessary to ensure that the project employs all processes needed to meet its requirements?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Quality Policy

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Quality Planning

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Questions 89

When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

Options:

A.

Fixed Fee

B.

Free Float

C.

Fixed Finish

D.

Finish-to-Finish

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Questions 90

Which characteristic is unique to project work and does not apply to operational work?

Options:

A.

Performed by individuals

B.

Limited by constraints

C.

Temporary

D.

Performed to achieve organizational objectives

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Questions 91

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

Options:

A.

Close Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Plan Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

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Questions 92

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Time Management

C.

Project Communications Management

D.

Project Quality Management

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Questions 93

Which of the following are documented directions to perform an activity that can reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks?

Options:

A.

Recommended corrective actions

B.

Recommended preventive actions

C.

Risk audits

D.

Risk reassessments

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Questions 94

The Process Group in which the internal and external stakeholders interact and influence the overall outcome of the project is the:

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.

B.

Initiating Process Group.

C.

Planning Process Group.

D.

Executing Process Group.

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Questions 95

An output of the Manage Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

project management plan updates

B.

project staff assignments updates

C.

team performance assessments

D.

resource calendar updates

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Questions 96

An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:

Options:

A.

Forecasting,

B.

Brainstorming.

C.

Historical databases.

D.

Cost of quality.

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Questions 97

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

PMI-001 Question 97

Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?

Options:

A.

0.8

B.

1

C.

1.25

D.

1.8

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Questions 98

Cost variance (CV) is equal to earned value:

Options:

A.

Minus actual cost [EV - AC].

B.

Minus planned value [EV - PV].

C.

Divided by actual cost [EV/AC].

D.

Divided by planned value [EV/PV].

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Questions 99

A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:

Options:

A.

Product analysis.

B.

Variance analysis.

C.

Document analysis,

D.

Decomposition.

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Questions 100

The chart below is an example of a:

PMI-001 Question 100

Options:

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

RACI chart

D.

Requirements traceability matrix

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Questions 101

Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Three-point

C.

Parametric

D.

Analogous

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Questions 102

The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:

Options:

A.

Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,

B.

Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.

C.

Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.

D.

Complete the work defined in the project management plan.

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Questions 103

Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Questions 104

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

Options:

A.

Resource attributes.

B.

Resource types.

C.

Resource categories.

D.

Resource breakdown structures (RBS).

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Questions 105

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Control Scope

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Questions 106

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:

Options:

A.

Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.

B.

Occur at random times in the project plans.

C.

Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.

D.

Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.

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Questions 107

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Business case

C.

Accepted deliverable

D.

Work performance information

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Questions 108

An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is:

Options:

A.

Organizational Structure

B.

Organizational Process Assets

C.

Organizational Matrix

D.

Organizational Breakdown Structures

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Questions 109

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

Options:

A.

risk taking and risk avoidance.

B.

known risk and unknown risk.

C.

identified risk and analyzed risk.

D.

varying degrees of risk.

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Questions 110

The stakeholder register is an output of:

Options:

A.

Identify Stakeholders.

B.

Plan Stakeholder Management.

C.

Control Stakeholder Engagement.

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

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Questions 111

When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

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Questions 112

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Plan Human Resource Management

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Questions 113

Portfolio Management is management of:

Options:

A.

a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B.

a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling.

C.

all projects undertaken by a company.

D.

a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

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Questions 114

An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

Options:

A.

Communication models.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational communications,

D.

Organizational cultures and styles.

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Questions 115

What is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

Options:

A.

Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)

B.

Work Performance Information

C.

Work Package

D.

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

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Questions 116

When should quality planning be performed?

Options:

A.

While developing the project charter

B.

In parallel with the other planning processes

C.

As part of a detailed risk analysis

D.

As a separate step from the other planning processes

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Questions 117

Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.

Influence/impact grid

B.

Power/influence grid

C.

Power/interest grid

D.

Salience model

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Questions 118

Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?

Options:

A.

Checksheets

B.

Histograms

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Control charts

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Questions 119

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?

Options:

A.

Interrelationship digraphs

B.

Tree diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Network diagram

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Questions 120

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder management strategy

B.

Communication methods

C.

Issue log

D.

Change requests

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Questions 121

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

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Questions 122

Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team?

Options:

A.

Negotiation

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Recognition and rewards

D.

Prizing and promoting

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Questions 123

In a project, total float measures the:

Options:

A.

Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.

B.

Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.

C.

Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.

D.

Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.

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Questions 124

The following is a network diagram for a project.

PMI-001 Question 124

The total float for the project is how many days?

Options:

A.

5

B.

9

C.

12

D.

14

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Questions 125

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

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Questions 126

Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

Options:

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Quality management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Risk management plan

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Questions 127

Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?

Options:

A.

Transference

B.

Avoidance

C.

Exploring

D.

Mitigation

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Questions 128

The following is a network diagram for a project.

PMI-001 Question 128

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.

A-B-C-F-G-I

B.

A-B-C-F-H-I

C.

A-D-E-F-G-I

D.

A-D-E-F-H-I

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Questions 129

One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:

Options:

A.

outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.

B.

establishes project roles and responsibilities.

C.

improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.

D.

provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.

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Questions 130

Which type of team can be defined as a group of people with a shared goal who fulfill their roles although spending little or no time meeting face to face?

Options:

A.

Co-location team

B.

Virtual team

C.

Departmental team

D.

Consultant team

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Questions 131

What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

Options:

A.

Role dependencies chart

B.

Reporting flow diagram

C.

Project organization chart

D.

Project team structure diagram

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Questions 132

To which process is work performance information an input?

Options:

A.

Contract administration

B.

Direction and management of project execution

C.

Create WBS

D.

Qualitative risk analysis

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Questions 133

Which of the following makes changes to formally control documentation to reflect modified or additional ideas or content?

Options:

A.

Defect repair

B.

Updates

C.

Corrective action

D.

Performance reports

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Questions 134

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?

Options:

A.

Scope audits

B.

Scope reviews

C.

Quality audits

D.

Control chart

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Questions 135

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

Options:

A.

Plan Communications

B.

Performance reporting

C.

Project status reports

D.

Distribute Information

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Questions 136

Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?

Options:

A.

Preventive action

B.

Risk management

C.

Corrective action

D.

Defect repair

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Questions 137

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Exam Code: PMI-001
Exam Name: Project Management Professional v5
Last Update: Nov 16, 2024
Questions: 919

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