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PDM_2002001060 CPM Questions and Answers

Questions 4

When should NELLE be updated with customer/project data?

Options:

A.

At quarter end.

B.

After the customer forecast is received.

C.

Every STP.

D.

At least once a month, before period end.

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Questions 5

In Nokia, what does PARD stands for?

Options:

A.

Program action required days.

B.

Project asset rotation days.

C.

Project action rotation days.

D.

Project asset required days.

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Questions 6

Nokia orders the I&C from a subcontractor. The subcon, not completely familiar with this new equipment, requires a Nokia technician to complete the service. What is the correct way to proceed?

Options:

A.

The technician is immediately provided to properly support our subcontractor and quickly complete the service and enable customer acceptance and invoicing.

B.

The technician will support the subcontractor only after the newly created change request is approved.

C.

A new change request is created and approved by the project manager then the technician is provided to support the subcontractor; an outgoing claim to the subcontractor is applied just after the service is completed and then the internal acceptance is provided.

D.

A new change request is created and approved by project manager, then the technician is provided to support the subcon; however an internal acceptance is not provided because of the incomplete service from the subcontractor.

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Questions 7

The foundation for successful claim management is:

Options:

A.

loyalty towards customer.

B.

risk contingency.

C.

contract change process.

D.

claim strategy and understanding of contractual obligations.

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Questions 8

The best way to manage the costs of change requests is to:

Options:

A.

accept them verbally.

B.

allow them to happen in an ad-hoc fashion.

C.

impose change unilaterally.

D.

document and authorize all changes.

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Questions 9

If the project has accepted the supplier's work and updated the progress tracking tool, what is the next step for a project which is not using real time interface version 4 (RTI 4.0)?

Options:

A.

Cost & progress manager updates SAP with the billing block release date.

B.

Cost & progress manager updates SAP with the goods receipt date.

C.

Logistics coordinator updates SAP with the billing block release date.

D.

Logistics coordinator updates SAP with the goods receipt date.

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Questions 10

In which of the following items are the contents of the VOA used in SAP?

Options:

A.

Sales order.

B.

Service order.

C.

Quantity contract.

D.

Customer invoice.

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Questions 11

Which of the following is NOT a project risk management process?

Options:

A.

risk monitoring and control.

B.

risk identification.

C.

risk avoidance.

D.

risk response planning.

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Questions 12

The risk contingency reserve is identified in which process?

Options:

A.

Estimate activity duration.

B.

Estimate costs.

C.

Determine cost baseline.

D.

Estimate activity resources.

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Questions 13

What is the purpose of change management?

Options:

A.

Tracking additional resources.

B.

Tracking additional purchase orders for suppliers due to quality issues.

C.

Documentation tracking.

D.

Monitoring and controlling deviations from baseline.

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Questions 14

An appropriate sequence for risk management activities is:

Options:

A.

risk identification, Risk quantification and risk response development and control.

B.

risk identification, risk assessment and risk planning.

C.

risk identification, risk mitigation and risk management.

D.

risk identification, risk elimination and risk mitigation.

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Questions 15

In which phase of the project is the greatest amount of its funding likely to be spent?

Options:

A.

Initiating.

B.

Executing.

C.

Planning.

D.

Closeout.

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Questions 16

Which of the following modules is NOT part of the current or planned ERM implementation in Nokia?

Options:

A.

Competence management.

B.

Time registration.

C.

Resource change management.

D.

Demand planning.

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Questions 17

What of the following options is the most appropriate course of action when the project subcontracting cost to date exceeds the plan in the CBL?

Options:

A.

Start opening NCC SvOs for the cost overruns as you can now expect further additional cost.

B.

Analyze the root cause of the cost increase and execute an action plan to get cost back on track, updating EAC if needed.

C.

Compensate for the unplanned extra costs by releasing part of the risk contingency.

D.

Stop raising subcontracting purchase orders so as to avoid incurring further excess cost.

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Questions 18

Company A is working on a project. The project‘s budget is €10,000. The planned value as of date X is €4,000. The project has an earned value of €3,500 and actual costs of €4,500. What is the cost variance of the project?

Options:

A.

€-1,000.

B.

€500.

C.

€-500.

D.

€1,000.

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Questions 19

What is the primary KPI generated from the Site Quality module of IPM?

Options:

A.

Rollout accuracy (RA).

B.

Project Site Quality Index (P-SQI).

C.

Site Invoice Lead Time (SILT).

D.

Telecom Implementation Lead Time (TILT).

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Questions 20

Which of the following examples will cause a decline in project cost adherence (PCA)?

Options:

A.

Additional scope of work ordered by customer.

B.

Additional service effort caused by site unavailability for which the customer is liable.

C.

Delay in equipment delivery.

D.

Penalties paid to the customer.

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Questions 21

Company A is working on a project. The project‘s budget is €10,000. The planned value as of date X is €4,000. The project has an earned value of €3,500 and actual costs of €4,500. Which statement is correct?

Options:

A.

The project is behind schedule.

B.

The project is ahead of schedule.

C.

The project is finished.

D.

The project is on schedule.

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Questions 22

How frequently is an update of the Cost Estimate at Completion required?

Options:

A.

Each time there is a change in the scope of work.

B.

Each time there is a change in the schedule or scope of work.

C.

At least once per month, prior to period end.

D.

Every quarter before PRS (Profitability Reporting System) results are published.

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Questions 23

Under what circumstances should the costs associated with the execution of the quality management plan be included in the project cost baseline?

Options:

A.

Quality Management costs should not be part of the project cost baseline as it is the obligation of the subcontractor to perform according to the contract.

B.

Quality Management costs should not be part of the project cost baseline but be entirely transferred to subcontractors that under-perform.

C.

Costs associated to quality management should be considered only in very complex projects when the risk of quality issues cannot be fully mitigated.

D.

Quality management costs must always be considered in the project plan as the benefits outweigh the costs in terms of less rework, higher productivity and higher stakeholder satisfaction.

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Questions 24

In relation to the program life cycle, when is the correct time to freeze the project scope?

Options:

A.

Before Gate 4.

B.

During the Gate 6 handover to project execution.

C.

During project execution.

D.

At Project closure.

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Questions 25

The project team has received the LoA approved risk log, which is the basis for the cost baseline risk contingency. During project execution a new relevant risk is identified. What is the best way to manage it?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the risk impact and probability, update Risk Log, revise ETC, NCC cost accordingly, and if required trigger LoA process.

B.

If the new risk is not part of the current risk log, than it must be part of a change management process and not be included in the contingency reserve.

C.

Evaluate the impact and probability and, if needed, make a revision of the contingency reserve in the cost baseline and in the EAC, and communicate to the relevant stakeholders.

D.

Define the Response plan for the new eisk and apply it.

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Questions 26

To create the WBS is the process of:

Options:

A.

subdividing the project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components.

B.

preparing and performing the product acceptance and verifying the correct administrative closure of a project.

C.

assigning work levels, resources, durations, budgets, and beginning and ending dates to identified activities.

D.

delegating schedule activities to project management team members, other departments, or to contractors.

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Questions 27

What is the purpose of a Project Target Agreement (PTA)?

Options:

A.

1. Full or partial agreement between CT Head and respective PM on the project baseline and the contract terms at the end of the handover process.

2. PM's formal confirmation that all relevant information from tender phase was handed over.

3. Release of tendering team.

B.

1. Agreement between PM and their line manager of the project targets relevant for short term incentive.

2. PM's confirmation that he is aware of and accepts the incentive relevant project objectives.

C.

1. Agreement between the PM and the customer of the project targets and the contract terms at the start of project execution.

2. Formal approval by the customer that the PM proposed by Nokia is considered acceptable.

D.

1. Full or partial agreement between tender PM and project execution PM of the project baseline and the contract terms at the end of the handover process.

2. PM's formal confirmation that all relevant information from tender phase was handed over.

3. Release of tendering team.

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Questions 28

Post Cost calculations are NOT used to:

Options:

A.

punish poor performers.

B.

develop historical data to establish baseline for future projects.

C.

learn lessons to apply to future projects.

D.

support for ongoing bids.

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Questions 29

Company A is working on a project. The project‘s budget is €10,000. The Planned value as of date X is €4,000. The project is 30% completed. 60% of the budget has been spent. If the company continues to spend money at the same rate, what will the project cost (EAC)?

Options:

A.

€10,000.

B.

€20,000.

C.

€6,000.

D.

€4,000.

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Questions 30

The technique of analyzing the sequence of activities with the least amount of scheduling flexibility is called the:

Options:

A.

critical path method.

B.

flowchart.

C.

Precedence diagram method.

D.

Work breakdown Structure.

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Questions 31

What are the primary responsibilities of the Cost & Progress Manager?

Options:

A.

To issue the purchase orders in a timely manner to subcontractors.

B.

To prepare the baseline independently and present to PM for approval prior to project start.

C.

To ensure that invoices are processed in a timely fashion and delays to subcontractor payments are avoided.

D.

Cost control and monitoring, including regular reviews with the Project Manager.

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Exam Code: PDM_2002001060
Exam Name: CPM
Last Update: Nov 27, 2023
Questions: 213
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