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ISTQB-CTFL ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following BEST matches the attributes with a level of testing?

I. Stubs and drivers are often used

II The lest environment should correspond to the production environment

III Finding defects is not the main focus

IV Testing can be based on use cases

V Testing is normally performed by testers

VI Testing for functional and non-functional characteristics

Options:

A.

Component - VI

Integration - IV

System -1

Acceptance - 111

B.

Component - IV

Integration -1

System - VI

Acceptance - V

C.

Component-I

Integration - V

System - II

Acceptance - IV

D.

Component - V

Integration - II

System - IV

Acceptance - VI

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Questions 5

In maintenance testing, what is the relationship between impact analysis and regression testing?

Options:

A.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for only the tests that have detected faults in previous SW release

B.

There is no relationship between impact analysis and regression testing.

C.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for all program elements which were newly integrated (new functionalities).

D.

The impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed.

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Questions 6

What is test oracle?

Options:

A.

The source of lest objectives

B.

The source for the actual results

C.

The source of expected results

D.

The source of input conditions

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Questions 7

How can testing contribute to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Testing help to measure the quality of software.

B.

Testing ensures that remaining defects are documented.

C.

Testing removes errors in the software.

D.

Testing eliminates the risk with software.

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Questions 8

Which TWO of the following are benefits of continuous integration?

I. Allows earlier detection and easier root cause analysis of integration problems and conflicting changes.

II. Removes the need for manual test analysis, design and execution.

Hi. Removes the dependency on automated regression packs when integrating larger systems, or components.

iv. Gives the development team regular feedback on whether the code is working.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

i and iv

B.

i and ii

C.

i and iii

D.

iii and iv

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Questions 9

Which of the following is an example of the absence-of-errors fallacy?

Options:

A.

Repeating the same test cases will continue to find new defects, even after dozens of executions

B.

A small number of modules contains the most defects

C.

Since testing found very few defects, the system certainly will be successful

D.

Other than trivial cases, it is not feasible to test all combinations of inputs and preconditions

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Questions 10

Which ONE of the following roles is responsible for mediating, managing time, and generating a safe review environment in which everyone can speak freely?

Options:

A.

Manager

B.

Reviewer

C.

Review leader

D.

Moderator

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Questions 11

For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required configuration of the test environment for running such test case:

ISTQB-CTFL Question 11

Assume that C0NF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment Based on this assumption, which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified dependencies and allows minimising the number of switches between the different configurations of the test environment^

Options:

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1, TC5.

B.

TCI, TC5, TC4, TC3, TC2

C.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1.

D.

TC4, TC1, TC5, TC2, TC3

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Questions 12

A software module to be used in a mission critical application incorporates an algorithm for secure transmission of data.

Which review type is most appropriate to ensure high quality and technical correctness of the algorithm?

Options:

A.

Walkthrough

B.

Informal Review

C.

Technical Review

D.

Management Review

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Questions 13

Which of the following statements about independent testing is WRONG?

Options:

A.

Independent testing is necessary because developers don't know any testing.

B.

Independent testing is best suited for the system test level.

C.

A certain degree of independence makes the tester more effective at finding defects.

D.

Independent test teams may find other types of detects than developers who are familiar with the system's structure.

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Questions 14

A bank software has a feature of locking down accounts that have and overdraft higher than $10,000.

Due to a bug in the code, the system locks down accounts once they reached $1000 overdraft.

Based on this context, which of the following is correct statement

Options:

A.

It is an example of a defect that it goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer and to the company (the bank)

B.

It is an example of a defect, that if goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer but not to the company (the bank)

C.

It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause harm to the end customer, but will cause harm to the company (the bank)

D.

It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause any real harm to either the end customer or to the company (the bank)

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Questions 15

You are testing a system that is used in motor vehicles to warn the driver of an obstacle when re-versing. Output is provided by a series of LED lights (green, yellow, and red), each illuminated based on clearly defined conditions.

The following summary describes the functionality:

•Object within 10 metres, green LED lit.

•Object within 5 metres, yellow LED lit.

•Object within 1 metre, red LED lit.

•Setting sensitivity mode to "ON" will result in only the red LED being lit when the object is within 1 metre.

The following decision table describes the rules associated with the functioning of this proximity warning system:

ISTQB-CTFL Question 15

Which intended functionality is tested by Rule 5 in the decision table?

Options:

A.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "off", resulting in the yellow LED being lit.

B.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "on", resulting in the yellow LED being lit.

C.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "off", resulting in no LED being lit.

D.

Object is within 5 metres of the vehicle and the sensitivity mode is switched "on", resulting in no LED being lit.

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Questions 16

A system has a self-diagnostics module that starts executing after the system is reset. The diagnostics are running 12 different tests on the systems memory hardware. The following is one of the requirements set for the diagnostics module:

'The time taking the diagnostics tests to execute shall be less than 2 seconds' Which of the following is a failure related to the specified requirement?

Options:

A.

The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset

B.

The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute

C.

The diagnostic tests that measure the speed of the memory, fail

D.

The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect implementation of the test code

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Questions 17

A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is anemergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.

Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

Options:

A.

Code coverage

B.

Data flow coverage

C.

Statement coverage

D.

Branch Coverage

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Questions 18

A typical objective of testing is to ensure that:

Options:

A.

testing is used to drive the development of a software

B.

a software has been tested using a combination of test techniques

C.

there are no defects in a software that is about to be released

D.

a software has been properly covered

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Questions 19

Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

Options:

A.

Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)

B.

Potentially endless loops

C.

Referencing a variable with an undefined value

D.

Security vulnerabilities

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Questions 20

Given the following review process main activities and specific review activities:

a.Planning

b.Initiate review

c.Issue communication and analysis

d.Fixing and reporting

1.Creating defect reports

2.Estimating effort and timeframe

3.Recording updated status of defects

4.Selecting the people to participate

5.Distributing the work product and other material

6.Evaluating the review findings

Which of the following BEST matches the review process main activities with the appropriate specific review activities?

Options:

A.

2-a, 4-a, 5-b, 6-c, 1-d, 3-d

B.

2-a, 5-a, 1-b, 4-b, 3-c, 6-d

C.

1-a, 4-b, 5-b, 6-c, 2-d, 3-d

D.

2-a, 4-b, 5-c, 1-d. 3-d, 6-d

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Questions 21

Which of the following statements about error guessing is true?

Options:

A.

Error guessing is a system that adopts artificial intelligence to predict whether software components are likely to contain defects or not

B.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing, rely on the use of a high-level list of what needs to be tested as a guide to find defects

C.

Error guessing refers to the ability of a system or component to continue normal operation despite the presence of erroneous inputs

D.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing technique, can anticipate where errors, defects and failures have occurred and target their tests at those issues

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Questions 22

A mid-size software product development company has analyzed data related to defects detected in its product and found out that detects fixed in earlier builds are getting re-opened after a few months.

The company management now seeks your advice in order to reverse this trend and prevent re-opening of defects fixed earlier.

What would be your FIRST recommendation to the company?

Options:

A.

Automate existing test suits so that lesser time is spent on execution of each test, and more tests can be executed m the available time thus leading to a lower probability of defects slipping by

B.

Verify existing regression test suite are adequate, and augment it, if required, in order to ensure that defects fixed earlier get re-tested in each subsequent build

C.

Analyze the product modules containing maximum defects, and get them thoroughly tested and defects fixed as a one-time activity

D.

If required, tram the teams responsible for development and testing of the modules containing maximum number of defects, and if this does not help, replace them with more knowledgeable people

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Questions 23

Which of the following is a role that is usually responsible for documenting the findings (e.g., action items, decisions, recommendations) made by the review team as part of a typical formal review?

Options:

A.

Review leader

B.

Facilitator.

C.

Recorder.

D.

Moderator

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Questions 24

An Incident Management tool implements the following defect states; Open, Assigned, Solved,

Closed Consider the following defect report:

Id T000561

Test Object "Warehouse Management' application

Tester name; John Bishop

Date: 10th. April 2010

Test Case MRT558I

Status OPEN

Severity Serious

Priority

Problem- After inputting the Total Quantity item = 450 in the SV034 screen, the system shows an unexpected Error message=47

Correction:

Developer name:

Closing date:

Which of the following is a valid criticism of this report?

Options:

A.

The Priority, the Correction description and the Developer name are missing

B.

The version of the application is missing

C.

There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability)

D.

The description is not highlighting the source of the problem

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Questions 25

Which two of the following statements describe the advantages provided by good traceability between the test basis and test work products?

I. Analyzing the impact of changes.

ii. A measure of code quality.

iii. Accurate test estimation.

iv. Making testing auditable.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

i and ii

B.

i and iv

C.

i and iii

D.

ii and iii

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Questions 26

Consider the following simplified version of a state transition diagram that specifies the behavior of a video poker game:

ISTQB-CTFL Question 26

What Is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of up to 3 states/2 transitions starting In the "Start" state and ending In the "End" state?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 27

Which of the following activities is NOT a pan of the fundamental testing process?

Options:

A.

Archiving automation code

B.

Test status reporting

C.

Test process improvement

D.

Build release and maintenance

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Questions 28

Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to be used as the basis for a test exit criteria?

Options:

A.

Test schedules

B.

Cost of testing performed so far

C.

Confidence of testers in tested code

D.

Number of unfixed defects

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Questions 29

Which of the following statements describes regression testing?

I. Retesting of a fixed defect

II. Testing of an already tested program

III. Testing of new functionality in a program

IV. Regression testing applies only to functional testing

V Tests that do not nave to be repeatable, because They are only used once

Options:

A.

II, IV, V

B.

I, III, IV

C.

II

D.

I, IV

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Questions 30

Which of the following statements regarding inspection isNOTtrue?

Options:

A.

An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author.

B.

The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems.

C.

An inspection can be performed by peers.

D.

An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria

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Questions 31

Which ONE of the following tools would be MOST SUITABLE for facilitating thecreation of test cases, test data, and test procedures?

Options:

A.

Test design and implementation toolsare specifically designed for creating test cases, test data, and test procedures.

B.

Static testing toolsas they assist the tester in conducting reviews and static analysis.

C.

DevOps tools, as they support the automated build process and CI/CD.

D.

Test execution and coverage toolsfacilitate the automated execution of tests and the measurement of test coverage.

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Questions 32

Which of the following isNOTan experience-based technique?

Options:

A.

Boundary value analysis.

B.

Error guessing

C.

Exploratory testing

D.

Fault attack

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Questions 33

Which of the following is a task the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review?

Options:

A.

Determining the people who will be involved in the review

B.

Recording the anomalies found during the review meeting

C.

Identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review

D.

Fixing the anomalies found in the work product under review

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Questions 34

Which of the following BEST describes checklist-based testing?

Options:

A.

Checklist-based testing includes formal tests from detailed lists of test conditions, allowing much repeatability

B.

Checklist-based testing may involve a list of tests based on what is important to the user as well as an understanding of why and how software fails

C.

Checklist-based testing, while popular, provides little consistency and few guidelines concerning test case development

D.

Checklist-based testing is restricted to non-functional testing, including usability, performance, and security test

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Questions 35

Which of the following statements about reviews are TRUE?

I. In walkthroughs the review meeting is typically led by the author.

II Inspection is characterized by an open-ended review meeting

III Preparation before the review meeting is part of informal reviews

IV Management rarely participates in technical review meetings

Options:

A.

II, Ill

B.

I, II

C.

I, IV

D.

III, IV

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Questions 36

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Static testing is better suited than dynamic testing for highlighting issues that could indicate inappropriate code modulansation.

B.

Dynamic testing can only be applied to executable work products, while static testing can only be applied to non-executable work products.

C.

Both dynamic testing and static testing cause failures, but failures caused by static testing are usually easier and cheaper to analyse.

D.

Security vulnerabilities can only be detected when the software is being executed, and thus they can only be detected through dynamic testing, not through static testing

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Questions 37

Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

1.A defined level of code coverage has been achieved

2.The test automation tool has been installed and properly configured

3.The number of unresolved defects is within the predefined limit

4.The performance test environment has been set-up and is available

5.The user stories have proper acceptance criteria defined

6.The testing budget has been spent and the project sponsor bears the risk of not testing any further

Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria:

Options:

A.

Entry criteria - 2, 4, 5Entry criteria -1, 3, 4

B.

Entry criteria - 2, 4 Entry criteria - 2, 4, 5, 6

C.

Exit criteria -1,3,6Exit criteria - 2, 5. 6

D.

Exit criteria -1,3,56Exit criteria -1,3

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Questions 38

A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.

Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?

Options:

A.

It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.

B.

It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it

C.

It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests

D.

It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product

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Questions 39

A financial institution is to implement a system that calculates the interest rates paid on investment accounts based on the sum invested.

You are responsible for testing the system and decide to use equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to design test cases. The requirements describe the following expectations:

Investment range| Interest rate

R500 to RIO 00010%

RIO 001 to R50 00011%

R50 001 to RlOOOOO12%

RIOOOOl to R500 000| 13%

What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the interest?

Options:

A.

5

B.

4

C.

8

D.

16

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Questions 40

For each of the test cases to be executed, the following table specifies the priority order and dependencies on other test cases

ISTQB-CTFL Question 40

Which of the following test execution schedules is compatible with the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases in priority order?

Options:

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC5. TC1

B.

TC4, TC6, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1

C.

TC3, TC5, TC6, TC1, TC4, TC3

D.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC1, TC5

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Questions 41

The following decision table is used to assist a doctor in determining the drug therapy to prescribe for a patient (aged 6 to 65 years) diagnosed with acute sinusitis. The table consists of three Boolean conditions and six actions

Based only on the given information, which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Column 7 represents an impossible situation and thus can be deleted

B.

Columns 1 and 3 can be merged into a single column

C.

Columns 2, 4, 6 and 8 can be merged into a single column

D.

Columns 5 and 7 can be merged into a single column

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Questions 42

Which ONE of the following statements BEST applies tochecklist-based testing?

Options:

A.

Checklists should contain general guidelines to ensure that all aspects of the software are covered.

B.

Checklists should contain specific test conditions that can be individually and directly checked.

C.

Checklists should primarily consist of automated test cases to maximize efficiency.

D.

Checklists should be used exclusively for functional testing, as they are unsuitable for non-functional testing.

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Questions 43

Decision table testing is being performed on transactions in a bank’s ATM (Automated Teller Machine) system. Two test cases have already been generated for rules 1 and 4. which are shown below:

ISTQB-CTFL Question 43

Which two of the additional test cases would achieve full coverage of the full decision table (when combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules 1 and 4)?

Options:

A.

DT1, DT4

B.

DT3, DT4

C.

DT2, DT3

D.

DT1.DT2

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Questions 44

Which of the following is a typical product risk?

Options:

A.

Poor usability of the software

B.

A problem in the code developed by a 3rd party

C.

Low quality of the configuration data, test data and tests

D.

Problem in defining the right requirements

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Questions 45

A program got 100% decision coverage in a test. Which of the following statements is then guaranteed to betrue?

Options:

A.

Every executable statement Is covered.

B.

Every output equivalence class has been tested.

C.

Every input equivalence class has been tested.

D.

The "dead" code has not been covered.

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Questions 46

Given the following state model of sales order software:

    PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

    IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

    IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED

    SHIPPED -> INVOICED

    INVOICED -> CANCELLED

    CANCELLED -> PLACED

Which of the following sequences of tran-sitions provides the highest level of tran-sition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

Options:

A.

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

B.

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

C.

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

D.

PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

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Questions 47

Consider the following list of activities (I to V):

I. Test design

II. Test planning

III. Review test basis

IV. Be a facilitator of a peer review

V. Test monitoring and control

Which ONE of the following options identifies the activities that the test management role is MAINLY focused on?

Options:

A.

Activities III, IV, and V

B.

Activities II and V

C.

Activities I and V

D.

Activities I, III, and IV

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Questions 48

Which of the following statements about the test pyramid is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Each layer of the test pyramid groups tests related to a single non-functional quality charactenstic.

B.

The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more production code a single automated test within the layer tends to cover

C.

The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more maintainable a single automated test within the layer tends to be

D.

The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more isolated a single automated test within the layer tends to be.

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Questions 49

Select the roles required in a formal review:

Options:

A.

Author, Management, Facilitator, Review Leader, Reviewers, Scribe

B.

Author, Tester. Facilitator. Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

C.

Author, Business analyst. Facilitator, Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

D.

Author. Developer, Facilitator. Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

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Questions 50

Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques?

1.Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the requirements, use cases and user stories

2.Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the software architecture or code

3.Test cases can show deviations from the requirements

4.These test techniques are applicable to both functional and non-functional testing

5.Tests are based on knowledge of developers, users and other stakeholders

Black - Black-box test techniques

White * White-box test techniques

Experience - Experience-based test techniques

Options:

A.

Black -1,3.4 White - 2 Experience - 5

B.

Black - 2, 3 White -1 Experience - 4, 5

C.

Black -1,2 White - 3, 4 Experience - 5

D.

Black - 2, 3 White -1,5 Experience - 4

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Questions 51

When should component integration tests be carried out?

Options:

A.

Integration tests should always be done after system tests

B.

Integration tests should be done at the customer's site, after acceptance tests

C.

Integration tests can be done before or after system tests

D.

Integration tests should always be done before system tests

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Questions 52

A company wants to reward each of its salespeople with an annual bonus that represents the sum of all the bonuses accumulated for every single sale made by that salesperson. The bonus for a single sale can take on the following four values: 3%, 5%, 7% and 10% (the percentage refers to the amount of the single sale). These values are determined on the basis of the type of customer (classified as "Basic" or "Premium") to which such sale was made, and on the amount of such sale classified into the following three groups G1, G2 and G3:

• [G1]: less than 300 euros

• [G2]: between 300 and 2000 euros

• [G3]: greater than 2000 euros

Which of the following is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table associated with this scenario?

Options:

A.

12

B.

6

C.

4

D.

3

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Questions 53

Which of the following statements about re-testing and regression testing are TRUE?

I Re-testing should be performed after a defect is fixed.

II Regression testing should always be performed after a defect is fixed.

III. Re-testing and regression testing may be performed at any test level.

IV Regression testing may include functional, non-functional and structural testing.

V. Re-testing should be included in the debugging activity.

Options:

A.

I, III. Iv

B.

II, v

C.

I, Ill

D.

II. IV, V

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Questions 54

Which of the following statements is the BEST example of non-functional testing?

Options:

A.

Tests which capture the time it takes to save a file

B.

Tests which calculate overtime pay for those employees entitled to such

C.

Tests related to "what" the system should do

D.

Tests based on the internal structure of a component or system

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Questions 55

You are testing the download process of a mobile phone application.

For which to the following capabilities to the system you need to design a nonfunctional test?

Options:

A.

It was easy to locate, download and install the application

B.

The application was correctly downloaded

C.

The application created an installation log file in a given folder

D.

The application installed only after the user's approval

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Questions 56

Which one of the following is a typical entry criteria for testing?

Options:

A.

Planned tests have been executed.

B.

Availability of testable requirements.

C.

The number of unresolved defects is within an agreed limit.

D.

The number of estimated remaining defects is sufficiently low.

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Questions 57

Which of the types of test tools noted below BEST describes tools that support reviews?

Options:

A.

Tools to assess data quality

B.

Tools to support usability testing

C.

Tools to support specialized testing needs

D.

Tools to support static testing

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Questions 58

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes a key characteristic of non-functional testing?

Options:

A.

Performing non-functional testing starting at the system test level.

B.

Conducting non-functional testing exclusively at the acceptance test level.

C.

Limiting non-functional testing to security testing and performance testing only.

D.

Ensuring non-functional testing focuses only on user experience and usability.

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Questions 59

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)?

Options:

A.

Expresses the desired behavior of an application with test cases written in a simple form of natural language that is easy to understand by stakeholders—usually using the Given/When/Then format. Test cases are then automatically translated into executable tests.

B.

Defines test cases at a low level, close to the implementation, using unit test frameworks.

C.

Is primarily focused on non-functional testing techniques to ensure system reliability and performance.

D.

Requires testing to be performed after development is completed to validate software functionality.

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Questions 60

For the following pseudo-code determine number of tests required for 100% statement coverage

IF Gender = Boy

If Age > 3 AND Age < 5

Shoe Size = 1

ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7

Shoe Size = 2

ENDIF

ELSE

IF Age > 3 AND Age < 5

Shoe Size = 0

ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7

Shoe Size = 1

ENDIF

ENDIF

Options:

A.

6

B.

4

C.

2

D.

6

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Questions 61

Which of the following activities does NOT belong to a typical technical review?

Options:

A.

Pre-meeting preparation by reviewers

B.

Using checklists during the meeting

C.

Inviting end-users to the meeting

D.

Preparation of a review report

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Questions 62

ST is a Software Testing organization which utilizes a testing knowledge base. Access to ST knowledge base can be either full or limited. Access level is determined based on ST certification and testing experience as follows:

1. If ST certified, with less than 5 years testing experience - allow limited access

2. If ST certified, 5-10 years of testing experience - allow full access

3. If not ST certified with 5-10 years of testing experience - allow limited access.

What would be the results for:

A - ST certified. 12 years of testing experience

B - Not ST certified. 7 years of testing experience

C - Not ST certified. 3 years of testing experience

Options:

A.

A - unknown

B - limned access

C- unknown

B.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - unknown

C.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - limited access

D.

A - unknown

B - full access

C - unknown

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Questions 63

The whole-team approach:

Options:

A.

promotes the idea that all team members should have a thorough understanding of test techniques

B.

is a consensus-based approach that engages the whole team in estimating the user stories

C.

promotes the idea that all team members should be responsible for the quality of the product

D.

is mostly adopted in projects aimed at developing safety-critical systems, as it ensures the highest level of testing independence

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Questions 64

The acceptance criteria associated with a user story:

Options:

A.

are often written in a rule-oriented format using the template referred to as "Given/When/Then"

B.

are often documented following in rule-oriented format using the following template: "As a [role], I want [feature], so that I can [benefit]"

C.

can be written in different formats and represent an aspect of a user story referred to as confirmation' of the so called "3 C's"

D.

must be written in one of the two following formats: scenario-oriented or rule-oriented

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Questions 65

Test automation allows you to:

Options:

A.

demonstrate the absence of defects

B.

produce tests that are less subject to human errors

C.

avoid performing exploratory testing

D.

increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects

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Questions 66

Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

Functional Testing

B.

Code inspection

C.

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

D.

Coverage analysis

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Questions 67

Select which of the following statements describe the key principles of software testing?

i. Testing shows the presence of defects, not their absence.

ii. Testing everything Is possible.

iii. Early testing Is more expensive and is a waste of time.

iv. Defects cluster together.

v. Testing is context dependent.

vi. Beware of the pesticide paradox.

vii. Absence of errors is a fallacy.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

i, iv, v, vi and vii

B.

I, ii, v. vi and vii

C.

iii. iv, v. vi and vii

D.

ii, iii, iv, v and vi

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Questions 68

Which statement best describes the key difference between a mindset for test activities and a mindset for development activities?

Options:

A.

A tester possesses professional pessimism while a developer is concerned with validating the product

B.

A tester is concerned with finding defects while a developer is interested in designing solutions

C.

A tester is interested in building solutions while a developer is concerned with verifying the product

D.

A tester is concerned with verifying the product while a developer possesses professional pessimism

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Questions 69

Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the risk-based approach

B.

The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the expert-based approach

C.

Bumdown charts used in Agile development is an example of the risk-based approach

D.

Burndown charts used in Agile development is an example of the expert-based approach

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Questions 70

Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?

Options:

A.

Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of the environment in which the software will be released

B.

Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items'

C.

Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test environments

D.

Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation

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Questions 71

Which of the following best describes the relationship between a test progress report and a test summary report?

Options:

A.

The test report prepared during a test activity may be referred to as a test progress report, while a test report prepared at the end of a test activity may be referred to as a test summary report.

B.

The test report prepared during a test activity may be referred to as a test summary report, while a test report prepared at the end of a test activity may be referred to as a test progress report.

C.

There is no difference between a test progress report and a test summary report.

D.

Both the test progress report and the test summary report should always be generated via an automated tool.

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Questions 72

Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?

I Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

II. The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.

III. Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.

IV Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.

Options:

A.

I, III, IV

B.

I, II, III

C.

III, IV

D.

II, III, IV

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Questions 73

Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the tester?

Options:

A.

Develop a test strategy and test policy for the organization

B.

Promote and advocate the test team within the organization

C.

Create the detailed test execution schedule

D.

Introduce suitable metrics for measuring test progress

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Questions 74

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Options:

A.

Looking for defects in a system may require Ignoring system details

B.

Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product

C.

Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity

D.

Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity

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Questions 75

Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

Options:

A.

All participants in the review are aware they will be evaluated based on the defects they will find

B.

The author of the work product to be reviewed leads the review meeting.

C.

All participants in the review are trained to deal with the review type and its objectives.

D.

Review metrics must be collected to improve the review process

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Questions 76

In what way do Configuration Management effects testing?

Options:

A.

Without proper configuration management, test planning cannot proceed.

B.

Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identity the tested item

C.

Configuration management is important for developers, not for testers

D.

There is very little influence of configuration management practices on the test project.

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Questions 77

Which of the following statements is TRUE'?

Options:

A.

Unlike functional testing, non-fundional testing can only be applied to conventional systems, not artificial intelligence-based system.

B.

Functional testing focuses on what the system is supposed to do, while white-box testing focuses on how well the system does what it is supposed to do

C.

Functional testing can be applied to all test levels, while non-functional testing can be applied only to system and acceptance test levels.

D.

Black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques may be applicable to both functional testing and non-functional testing

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Questions 78

You are an experienced tester on a project with incomplete requirements and under pressure to deploy.

What type of testing should you do?

Options:

A.

Decision-based testing.

B.

Checklist-based testing.

C.

Error guessing.

D.

Exploratory testing.

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Questions 79

The following requirement is given “Set X to be the sum of Y and Z”.

All the following four implementations have bugs.

Which one of the following bugs can be caught by Static Analysis?

Options:

A.

int x = 1.

int y = 2.

int y = 3.

X = y=z;

B.

int x = 1.

int y = 2.

int z = 3.

X = z-y

C.

int x = 1.

Int y = 2.

Int z = 3.

Z = x +y

D.

int y = 2

Int z = 3.

Y = z+y

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Questions 80

Which of the following types of tools is BEST suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?

Options:

A.

Containerisation tool

B.

Fault seeding tool.

C.

Static analysis tool.

D.

Test data preparation tool

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Questions 81

Which of the following answers describes a reason for adopting experience-based testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Experience-based test techniques provide more systematic coverage cnteria than black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Experience-based test techniques completely rely on the tester's past experience for designing test cases.

C.

Experience-based test techniques allow designing test cases that are usually easier to reproduce than those designed with black-box and white-box test techniques.

D.

Experience-based test techniques tend to find defects that may be difficult to find with black-box and white-box test techniques and are often useful to complement these more systematic techniques.

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Questions 82

Manager responsibilities in formalreview includes adexceptone of the following:

Options:

A.

Planning the review

B.

Determines if the review objectives have been met

C.

Decide on the execution of reviews

D.

Allocate time for review

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Questions 83

Which of the following statements best describe Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)?

Options:

A.

A collaborative approach that allows every stakeholder to contribute to how the software component must behave.

B.

Expresses the behavior of an application with test cases written in Given When Then format.

C.

Is used to develop code guided by automated test cases.

D.

A psychological technique in which the team's behavior in agile teams is evaluated.

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Questions 84

A software company decides to invest in reviews of various types. The thought process they have is that each artifact needs to be reviewed using only one of the review methods depending on the criticality of the artifact.

Options:

A.

The thought process is incorrect. The whole company should adopt same standard for review of all artifacts.

B.

The thought process is correct. The whole company should decide or the review method based on their CMM level.

C.

The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods

D.

The thought process is correct. It wastes time to review same artifact using efferent review methods

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Questions 85

You are testing the latest version of an air-traffic control system prior to production deployment using exploratory testing. After following an unusual sequence of input steps,the system crashes. After the crash, you document a defect report with the following information:

•Title: System crashes unexpectedly during input.

•Brief summary: System crashes when an unusual sequence of inputs is used.

•Version: V1.001

•Test: Exploratory testing prior to production deployment

•Priority: Urgent

•Risk: High

•References: Screenshot of crashed application

What critical Information Is missing from this report?

Options:

A.

Conclusions, recommendations, and approvals.

B.

Change history.

C.

Description of the defect to enable reproduction.

D.

Status of defect

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Questions 86

Which of the following activities are part of test planning?

I) Setting the entry and exit criteria

II) Determining the validity of bug reports

III) Determining the number of resources required

IV) Determining the expected result for test cases

Options:

A.

I. IV

B.

I. III

C.

I, III, IV

D.

I, II, IV

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Questions 87

Which review type, also known as a “buddy check”, is commonly used in Agile development?

Options:

A.

Inspection.

B.

Walkthrough.

C.

Technical review.

D.

Informal review.

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Questions 88

Which sequence of state transition stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting me life-cycle of a defect?

ISTQB-CTFL Question 88

Options:

A.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S4

B.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5^>S1

C.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3

D.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

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Questions 89

Given the following review types and review characteristics:

a.Pair review

b.Walkthrough

c.Technical review

d.Inspection

1.Formal

2.Informal

3.Purposes include evaluating the quality of the work product under review and generating new ideas (e.g., brainstorming solutions)

4.Purposes include Improving the software product and training the review participants

Which of the following BEST matches the review type with the review characteristic?

Options:

A.

a-1. b-4, c-3. d-2

B.

a-4, b-3. c-2. d-1

C.

a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

D.

a-2, b-4, c-3. d-1

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Questions 90

A calculator software is used to calculate the result for 5+6.

The user noticed that the result given is 6.

This is an example of;

Options:

A.

Mistake

B.

Fault

C.

Error

D.

Failure

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Questions 91

Which or the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool?

Options:

A.

A peer reviews finds defects while static analysis finds failures.

B.

Static analysis targets the code technically whereas Peer review is applicable to further aspects.

C.

Peer reviews cannot find missing requirements whereas static analysis can

D.

A peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects.

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Questions 92

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY part of atest plan?

Options:

A.

The budget and schedule for the test project.

B.

A detailed analysis of the defects found and their causes.

C.

A detailed report on the test results after the test project is completed.

D.

A list of test logs from the test execution.

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Questions 93

Consider the following user story about an e-commerce website's registration feature that only allows registered users to make purchases ; As a new user, I want to register to the website, so that I can start shopping online"

The following are some of the acceptance criteria defined for the user story

[a] The registration form consists of the following fields: username, email address, first name, last name, date of birth, password and repeat password.

[b] To submit the registration request, the new user must fill in all the fields of the registration form with valid values and must agree to the terms and conditions.

[c] To be valid, the email address must not be provided by free online mail services that allow to create disposable email addresses. A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid address is entered.

[d] To be valid, the first name and last name must contain only alphabetic characters and must be between 2 and 80 characters long A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid first name and/or the last name is entered

[e] After submitting the registration request, the new user must receive an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form

Based only on the given information, which of the following ATDD tests is MOST LIKELY to be written first?

Options:

A.

The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the email address, where he/she enters an e-mail address provided by a free online mail service that allow to create disposable email addresses. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue.

B.

The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the first name, where he/she enters a first name with 10 characters that contains a number. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue.

C.

The user accesses the website with a username and password, and successfully places a purchase order for five items, paying by Mastercard credit card

D.

The new user enters valid values in all the fields of the registration form, confirms to accept all the terms and conditions, submits the registration request and then receives an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form

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Questions 94

A test engineer finds a defect while testing. After the developer has fixed the defect, the test engineer decides to re-run a complete section of the tests. Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

The lest engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already been run, and results recorded.

B.

The test engineer should not re-run the tests, they should be part of the developer tests.

C.

The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix.

D.

The test engineer should re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated.

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Questions 95

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items.

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

Options:

A.

I. Ill

B.

I, IV

C.

II. IV

D.

II. Ill

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Questions 96

Which of the following is a typical potential risk of using test automation tools?

Options:

A.

Reduced feedback times regarding software quality compared to manual testing.

B.

Reduced test execution limes compared to manual testing.

C.

Reduced repeatability and consistency of tests compared to manual testing

D.

Underestimation of effort required to maintain test scripts.

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Questions 97

In which of the following cases you wouldNOTexecute maintenance testing?

Options:

A.

Retirement of the software or system

B.

Modifications to a released software or system

C.

Migration of the system data to a replacement system

D.

Update to the Maintainability requirements during the development phase

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Questions 98

The following sentences refer to the 'Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829).

Which sentence is correct?

Options:

A.

Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development

B.

Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization

C.

The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard

D.

This test plan outline is relevant for military projects. For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items.

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Exam Code: ISTQB-CTFL
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0)
Last Update: Mar 27, 2025
Questions: 328

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