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IIA-CIA-Part2 Practice of Internal Auditing Questions and Answers

Questions 4

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be considered necessary for a one-person audit function?

Options:

A.

A formalized technical audit manual

B.

A written administrative audit manual

C.

A memorandum stating policies and procedures

D.

A comprehensive policy and procedure manual

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Questions 5

The chief audit executive (CAE) is developing a workpaper preparation policy for a new internal audit activity. The CAE wants to ensure that all workpapers relate directly to the engagement objectives. Which of the following statements should be included in the policy specifically to address this concern?

Options:

A.

The workpapers should be understandable.

B.

The workpapers should be relevant.

C.

The workpapers should be economical.

D.

The workpapers should be complete.

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Questions 6

A senior IT auditor is performing an audit of inventory valuation. The auditor misinterprets the sampling results. Which of the following best describes this situation?

Options:

A.

Sampling risk.

B.

Control risk.

C.

Nonsampling risk.

D.

Residual risk.

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Questions 7

A chief audit executive (CAE) is trying to balance the internal audit activity's needs for technical audit skills budget efficiency and staff development opportunities. Which of the following would best assist the CAE in achieving this balance1?

Options:

A.

Strategic sourcing

B.

Loan staff arrangement

C.

Flat organizational structure

D.

Hierarchical organizational structure

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Questions 8

A chief audit executive (CAE) determined that management chose to accept a high-level risk that may be unacceptable lo the organization. Which is the best course of action for the CAE to Follow?

Options:

A.

Include using in a subsequent audit to determine if the risks are still present

B.

Discuss the matter with senior management and it not reserved with the board

C.

Require that management implement controls to mitigate lie risks

D.

Report the risks to the process owners so that they can modify their process

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Questions 9

According to IIA guidance, which of the following provides additional insight into errors, problems, missed opportunities, or noncompliance to improve the effectiveness and efficiency of an organization's control process?

Options:

A.

Reperformance.

B.

Vouching.

C.

Independent confirmation.

D.

Root cause analysis.

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Questions 10

To which of the following aspects should the chief audit executive give the most consideration while communicating an identified unacceptable risk to management?

Options:

A.

The organization's attitude to hierarchy

B.

The organization's whistleblowing strategy

C.

The organization's ongoing risk monitoring process

D.

The organization's risk management policy

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Questions 11

An internal auditor suspects that employee turnover is unusually high at the organization's primary manufacturing plant To investigate this potential issue which of the following analytical approaches is the auditor likely to use?

Options:

A.

Ratio analysis

B.

Vertical analysis

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Cost-benefit analysis.

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Questions 12

New environmental regulations require the board to certify that the organization's reported pollutant emissions data is accurate. The chief audit executive (CAE) is planning an audit to provide assurance over the organization's compliance with the environmental regulations. Which of the following groups or individuals is most important for the CAE to consult to determine the scope of the audit?

Options:

A.

The audit committee of the board.

B.

The environmental, health, and safety manager.

C.

The organization's external environmental lawyers.

D.

The organization's insurance department.

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Questions 13

An organization does not have a formal risk management function. According to the Standards, which of the following are conditions where the internal audit activity may provide risk management consulting?

There is a clear strategy and timeline to migrate risk management responsibility back to management.

The internal audit activity has the final approval on any risk management decisions.

The internal audit activity gives objective assurance on all parts of the risk management framework for which it is responsible.

The nature of services provided to the organization is documented in the internal audit charter.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

2 and 4 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

2 and 3 only.

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Questions 14

Which of the following behaviors could represent a significant ethical risk if exhibited by an organization's board?

1. Intervening during an audit involving ethical wrongdoing.

2. Discussing periodic reports of ethical breaches.

3. Authorizing an investigation of an unsafe product.

4. Negotiating a settlement of an employee claim for personal damages.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 15

Which of the following would most likely form part of the engagement scope?

Options:

A.

Potential legislation on privacy topics will be employed as a compliance target.

B.

Wire transfers that exceeded $10,000 in the last 12 months will be analyzed.

C.

Both random and judgmental samplings will be used during the engagement.

D.

The probability of significant errors will be considered via risk assessment.

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Questions 16

Acceding to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the risk assessment process performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The assessment of high-level risks is typically a linear process.

B.

Management should create the preliminary risk matrix

C.

The analysis should begin with ne identification of objectives

D.

Likelihood should receive greater consideration than impact

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Questions 17

When establishing a quality assurance and improvement program, the chief audit executive should ensure the program is designed to accomplish which of the following objectives?

1. Add value.

2. Improve operations.

3. Provide assurance that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards.

4. Provide assurance that the internal audit activity conforms with the IIA Code of Ethics.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Questions 18

A corporate merger decision prompts the chief audit executive (CAE) lo propose interim changes to the existing annual audit plan to account for emerging risks Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take regarding the changes made to the audit plan''

Options:

A.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the board for approval.

B.

Communicate with the chief financial officer and present the revised audit plan to the CEO tor approval

C.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the CEO for approval

D.

Communicate with the CEO and present the revised audit plan to the board for approval.

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Questions 19

An internal auditor is conducting a review of the procurement function and uncovers a potential conflict of interest between the chief operating officer and a significant supplier of IT software development services. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Inform the audit supervisor.

B.

Investigate the potential conflict of interest.

C.

Inform the external auditors of the potential conflict of interest.

D.

Disregard the potential conflict, because it is outside the scope of the audit assignment.

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Questions 20

Which of the following should be included in a privacy audit engagement?

1. Assess the appropriateness of the information gathered.

2. Review the methods used to collect information.

3. Consider whether the information collected is in compliance with applicable laws.

4. Determine how the information is stored.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Questions 21

Which of the following is most appropriate for internal auditors to do during the internal audit recommendations monitoring process?

Options:

A.

Report the monitoring status to senior management when requested.

B.

Assist management with implementing corrective actions.

C.

Determine the frequency and approach to monitoring.

D.

Include all types of observations in the monitoring process.

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Questions 22

As a result of server managements assumption of risk there is residual risk that exceeds me organisation's risk appetite. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate for the chief audit executive to take?

Options:

A.

ignore the responsibility of addressing the residual risk

B.

Assume the responsibility of addressing the residual risk

C.

Ensure senior management acknowledges residual risk

D.

Communicate with the board the issue of residual risk

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Questions 23

Which of the following is the most appropriate objective for establishing a professional development plan for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

A plan that focuses on furthering the independence of the internal audit activity.

B.

A plan that ensures internal auditors collectively possess expertise in various fields to avoid outsourcing.

C.

A plan based on individual preferences and proposals, which helps internal auditors achieve greater success.

D.

A plan that focuses on filling gaps in the current skills needed to complete audit objectives.

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Questions 24

Which of the following would not be a typical activity for the chief audit executive to perform following an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Report follow-up activities to senior management.

B.

Implement follow-up procedures to evaluate residual risk.

C.

Determine the costs of implementing the recommendations.

D.

Evaluate the extent of improvements.

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Questions 25

Which of the following statements is true regarding risk assessments, including the evaluation and prioritization of risk and control factors?

Options:

A.

A risk-by-process matrix enables the user to determine associations between any of the processes and the risks.

B.

The risk-factor approach for linking business processes and risks is more direct than the use of a risk-by-process matrix.

C.

Internal risk factors are built into the environment and the nature of the process itself.

D.

A risk map is used primarily to depict which risks will be reduced and which will be shared.

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Questions 26

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is false regarding a review of the controls in place to prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

The review should focus on the efficiency of the controls in place to prevent fraud.

B.

The scope of the review does not need to include all operating areas of the organization.

C.

The cost of the control should be compared to the benefit of mitigating the related risk.

D.

The review should assess whether the internal controls can be circumvented.

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Questions 27

Which of the following would help the internal audit activity assess compliance with the organization's standard operating procedures for bank deposits during a preliminary survey?

Options:

A.

Issue an internal control questionnaire to select branch customers.

B.

Issue an internal control questionnaire to the president of the organization.

C.

Issue an internal control questionnaire to the director of bank operations.

D.

Issue an internal control questionnaire to select branch managers.

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Questions 28

Which of the following is true about surveys?

Options:

A.

A survey with open-ended questions is weaker than a structured interview

B.

A survey with closed-ended questions can produce quantifiable evidence

C.

A survey's participants are likely to volunteer information that was not specifically requested

D.

A survey, like inspections and confirmations are best used to test the operating effectiveness of controls

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Questions 29

Upon concluding the engagement fieldwork an internal auditor discusses the audit findings with operational management There is a greater likelihood that the auditor will obtain a responsive action plan from management when both parties agree on which of the following attributes of the audit finding?

Options:

A.

Criteria

B.

Condition

C.

Cause

D.

Effect

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Questions 30

The head of customer service asked the chief audit executive (CAE) whether internal auditors could assist her staff with conducting a risk self-assessment in the customer service department The CAE promised to meet with customer service managers analyze relevant business processes and come up with a proposal Who is most likely to be the final approver of the engagement objectives and scope?

Options:

A.

Senior management of the organization

B.

The chief audit executive

C.

The head of customer service

D.

The board of directors

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Questions 31

According to IIA guidance, which of the following objectives was most likely formulated for a non-assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity will assess the effects of changes in maintenance strategy on the availability of production equipment.

B.

The internal audit activity will inform management on the possible risks of moving the data warehouse to a cloud server maintained by a third party.

C.

The internal audit activity will ascertain whether the data center security arrangements are compliant with agreed terms.

D.

The internal audit activity will ensure equipment downtime risks have been managed in accordance with internal policy.

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Questions 32

Which of the following is a justifiable reason for omitting advance client notice when planning an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Advance notice may result in management making corrections to reduce the number of potential deficiencies.

B.

Previous management action plans addressing prior internal audit recommendations remain incomplete.

C.

The engagement includes audit assurance procedures such as sensitive or restricted asset verifications.

D.

The audit engagement has already been communicated and approved through the annual audit plan.

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Questions 33

Which of the following best describes the four components of a balanced scorecard?

Options:

A.

Customers, innovation, growth, and internal processes.

B.

Business objectives, critical success factors, innovation, and growth.

C.

Customers, support, critical success factors, and learning.

D.

Financial measures, learning and growth, customers, and internal processes.

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Questions 34

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements about analytical procedures is true?

Options:

A.

Analytical procedures compare information against expectations.

B.

Analytical procedures begin after the engagement’s planning phase.

C.

Analytical procedures provide internal auditors with explainable results.

D.

Analytical procedures are computer-assisted audit techniques.

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Questions 35

A team of internal auditors is assigned to audit the employee relations process in an organization, which includes employee conduct and disciplinary hearings. Which of the following audit approaches would provide the auditors with the best evidence to determine the degree to which disciplinary decisions are complying with documented policy?

Options:

A.

Review a random sample of concluded disciplinary reports to assess how the policy was applied in each case.

B.

Interview a sample of impacted employees for their opinions on the clarity and fairness of the policy.

C.

Observe several disciplinary hearings to determine whether they are in compliance with the policy.

D.

Conduct an interview to assess the disciplinary hearing chairman’s understanding of the policy and its appropriate use.

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Questions 36

When auditing an organization's purchasing function, which of the following appropriately matches an engagement objective and the resulting audit procedure?

Options:

A.

Determine whether the purchasing department complies with policy by examining a random selection of purchase orders.

B.

Evaluate whether purchasing requests are properly approved by authorized staff by obtaining independent verification from the vendors.

C.

Ascertain whether material receipts are recorded on a timely basis by reviewing physical inventory stock counts.

D.

Determine whether prices charged for goods received are correct by reviewing the appropriate accounts payable record by vendor.

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Questions 37

An internal auditor was assigned to review controls in the accounts payable function. Most of tie accounts payable processes are performed by a third-party service provider. The auditor included in the audit report a number of control deficiencies involving processes performed by the service provider. The service provider requested a copy of the report Which of Vie following would be the most appropriate response from the chief audit executive (CAE)?

Options:

A.

The CAE would automatically sand a copy of the report to the service provider as many of the findings relate to Via area managed by the service provider

B.

The CAE may distribute the report to tie service provider at no cost, after consulting with legal counsel and tie chief compliance officer

C.

The CAE may provide a copy of the audit report to the service provider If an agreement & signed and the service provider agrees to reimburse the cost of the audit

D, The CAE should benchmark with other organization in the industry by consorting with colleagues and distribute the report only I it is an acceptable practice m the industry

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Questions 38

An internal auditor wants to compare performance information from one quarter to another. Which analytics procedure would the auditor use?

Options:

A.

Ratio analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Vertical analysis

D.

Benchmarking analysis

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Questions 39

The final internal audit report should be distributed to which of the following individuals?

Options:

A.

Audit client management only

B.

Executive management only

C.

Audit client management, executive management, and others approved by the chief audit executive.

D.

Audit client management, executive management, and any those who request a copy.

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Questions 40

During an audit of the human resources department, an internal auditor adopts benchmarking to test the employee turnover rate. How should the internal auditor apply this technique?

Options:

A.

Compare turnover m the organization to published turnover rates of peer organizations.

B.

Compare turnover in one period with turnover in the previous period in the organization

C.

Compare turnover in the period to total employees in the organization

D.

Compare turnover with the auditor's general knowledge of the organization

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Questions 41

Which of the following is not an outcome of control self-assessment?

Options:

A.

Informal, soft controls are omitted, and greater focus is placed on hard controls.

B.

The entire objectives-risks-controls infrastructure of an organization is subject to greater monitoring and continuous improvement.

C.

Internal auditors become involved in and knowledgeable about the self-assessment process.

D.

Nonaudit employees become experienced in assessing controls and associating control processes with managing risks.

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Questions 42

Which of the following would most likely cause an internal auditor to consider adding fraud work steps to the audit program?

Options:

A.

Improper segregation of duties.

B.

Incentives and bonus programs.

C.

An employee's reported concerns.

D.

Lack of an ethics policy.

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Questions 43

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

For both assurance and consulting engagements, planning typically occurs after the engagement objectives and scope have already been determined.

B.

The expectations and objectives of an assurance engagement are usually determined by, or in conjunction with, the engagement client.

C.

Internal auditors may not need to complete a preliminary risk assessment for a consulting engagement as they would when planning an assurance engagement.

D.

For both consulting and assurance engagements, internal auditors usually form the engagement objectives prior to completing the preliminary risk assessment.

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Questions 44

An internal auditor developed a list of internal and external risk considerations across the organization's processes, developed a scale to assess each risk and allocated the relative importance of each risk. When of the following approaches did the auditor take?

Options:

A.

Top-down approach

B.

Process-Metrix approach

C.

Risk-factor approach

D.

Bottom up approach

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Questions 45

Which of the following describes the primary objective of an internal audit engagement supervisor?

Options:

A.

Uphold the quality of the internal audit actively

B.

Provide engagement progress updates to management of the area under review

C.

Assure risks and controls are identified and assessed

D.

Ensure timely completion of the engagement

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Questions 46

An internal auditor completed a test of 30 randomly selected accounts. For five of the accounts selected, the auditor was unable to find supporting documentation in the normal place of storage. Which of the following next steps would be most appropriate for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Conclude that the test failed because at least 17 percent of the sample items were not supported.

B.

Select five new accounts to replace the ones that were missing supporting documentation.

C.

Expand the sample size to 60 to determine whether the error rate remains the same.

D.

Contact management to determine whether the supporting documentation can be located elsewhere.

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Questions 47

An internal auditor has been assigned to facilitate a risk and control self-assessment for the finance group. Which of the following is the most appropriate role that she should assume when facilitating the workshop?

Options:

A.

Express an opinion on the participants' inputs and conclusions as the assessment progresses.

B.

Provide appropriate techniques and guidelines on how the exercise should be undertaken.

C.

Evaluate and report on all issues that may be uncovered during the exercise.

D.

Screen and vet participants so that the most appropriate candidates are selected to participate in the exercise.

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Questions 48

An internal auditor collected several employee testimonials Which of the following is the best action for the internal auditor to take before drawing a conclusion?

Options:

A.

Ensure the testimonials are well documented

B.

Substantiate the testimonials with physical or documentary evidence

C.

Corroborate testimonials with the results from other soft control techniques

D.

Review the testimonials with the interviewed employees

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Questions 49

An internal control questionnaire would be most appropriate in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

Testing controls where operating procedures vary.

B.

Testing controls in decentralized offices.

C.

Testing controls in high risk areas.

D.

Testing controls in areas with high control failure rates.

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Questions 50

Which of the following is the most important concept to be included in a consulting engagement agreement?

Options:

A.

Define the duties and responsibilities needed from management to perform the engagement.

B.

Disclose the fact that auditors who perform the work may not be subject matter experts in the topic of the review.

C.

Clarify that matters discovered during the engagement may also be reported to senior management and the audit committee.

D.

Disclose the fact that follow-up reviews may be conducted to ensure that recommendations are implemented adequately.

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Questions 51

White planning an audit engagement of a procurement card activity. which of the following actions should an internal auditor take to denary relevant risks and controls?

Options:

A.

Compare card transaction types against procurement card policy guidelines.

B.

Develop the scope and objectives of the engagement

C.

Determine how many cardholders exceeded their daily limit.

D.

Meet with the procurement card program administrator

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Questions 52

In which of the following situations has an internal audit of obtained physical evidence?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor made purchases from several of the organization's retail outlets to evaluate customer service

B.

An internal auditor interviewed various employees regarding health and safety issues and recorded their answers

C.

An internal auditor obtained the current quarterly financial report and computed changes in deb-to-equity ratio

D.

An internal auditor received a signed confirmation regarding the terms of a transaction from an independent attorney

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Questions 53

Which of the following is an example of a compliance assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Providing in-house training to senior management regarding applicable laws and regulations.

B.

Providing an assessment of the design adequacy of controls related to consumer privacy and confidentiality.

C.

Providing an assessment of customer satisfaction with customer service provided by the organization.

D.

Providing testing on the operating effectiveness of controls over the reliability of financial reporting.

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Questions 54

Which of the following is one of the five attributes that internal auditors include when documenting a deficiency?

Options:

A.

The criteria used to make the evaluation

B.

The methodology used to analyze data

C.

The proposed follow-up engagement work to be performed

D.

The scope of work performed during the engagement

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Questions 55

After the team member who specialized in fraud investigations left the internal audit team, the chief audit executive decided to outsource fraud investigations to a third party service provider on an as needed basis. Which of the following is most likely to be a disadvantage of this outsourcing decision?

Options:

A.

Cost.

B.

Independence.

C.

Familiarity.

D.

Flexibility.

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Questions 56

An audit observation noted that annual inventory counts of biofuel was not being performed appropriately Fuel yards were not visited and physical amounts of biofuel were not reconciled with accounting data Management of the division understood the issue and promised to resolve the problem When should the internal auditor schedule a follow-up review?

Options:

A.

As soon as possible, no later than two months after the audit

B.

When convenient for both parties

C.

When management has indicated that the issue has been resolved

D.

Before financial year end

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Questions 57

When auditing an organization's cash-handling activates which of the following is the most reliable form of testimonial evidence an internal auditor can obtain?

Options:

A.

Testimony from the cashier who performs the processes being reviewed

B.

Testimony from me cashier's supervisor who knows how processes should be performed

C.

Testimony from a knowledgeable person who is independent of the cashiering duty

D.

Testimony from a manager who oversees all cashiering activities being reviewed

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Questions 58

Senior IT management requests the internal audit activity to perform an audit of a complex IT area. The chief audit executive (CAE) knows that the internal audit activity lacks the expertise to perform the engagement. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Decline the audit engagement, because the Standards prohibit internal auditors from performing engagements where they lack the necessary competencies.

B.

Accept the audit engagement and use the engagement as an opportunity to develop the audit team’s IT expertise while performing the audit work.

C.

Temporarily hire an experienced and knowledgeable IT analyst from the organization's IT department to lead the audit.

D.

Outsource the audit engagement to a reputable IT audit consulting firm.

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Questions 59

While reviewing the organization’s financial year-end processes, an internal auditor discovered an erroneous journal entry. If the error is not addressed, it will result in a material misstatement of the financial records. The internal auditor needs an additional four weeks to complete the audit engagement. How should the auditor communicate this finding?

Options:

A.

The auditor should issue an interim report to management prior to completion of the audit and issuance of the final report.

B.

The auditor should include this item in the final audit report, marked with an asterisk, indicating that it is a high-risk item.

C.

The auditor should discuss the finding with the appropriate accounting staff who can make the correction immediately, and if corrected before the engagement is concluded, the finding would not need to be included in the audit report.

D.

The auditor is obligated to bypass management and immediately report the error directly to regulatory authorities.

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Questions 60

In which of the following situations would an internal control questionnaire best suit the internal auditor's purpose?

Options:

A.

The auditor wants to receive mid-level management insight on how to improve hiring practices

B.

The auditor wants to obtain information on whether adherence to approval matrices is actually taking place in different maintenance units.

C.

The auditor wants to gain assurance that inventory counts are conducted in accordance with established procedures.

D.

The auditor wants to assess whether different subsidiaries apply centrally established procurement rules in the same manner

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Questions 61

The external auditor has identified a number of production process control deficiencies involving several departments. As a result, senior management has asked the internal audit activity to complete internal control training for all related staff. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to follow?

Options:

A.

Refuse to accept the consulting engagement because it would be a violation of independence.

B.

Collaborate with the external auditor to ensure the most efficient use of resources.

C.

Accept the engagement but hire an external training specialist to provide the necessary expertise.

D.

Accept the engagement even if the audit engagement staff was previously responsible for operational areas being trained.

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Questions 62

Which of the following would present the most critical external risk to an organization?

Options:

A.

The organization experiences a merger, and the management team is reorganized and redistributed globally

B.

The organization launches a product into new global markets

C.

After minimal testing, the organization implements a new system to replace a legacy system

D.

Regulators announce broad legislative reforms applicable to the industry within which the organization operates

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Questions 63

Which of the following statements is true regarding the chief audit executive's (CAT$) responsibilities after completing an assurance or consulting engagement?

Options:

A.

The CAE must establish a follow-up process tor both assurance and consulting engagements to monitor that management actions have been effectively implemented to address observations

B.

The CAE must communicate the results of assurance and consulting engagements lo whoever can ensure that the results are given due consideration.

C.

The CAE must acknowledge satisfactory performance when communicating the results of assurance and consulting engagements

D.

The CAE may delegate the responsibility for communicating the results of consulting engagements although this responsibility cannot be delegated for assurance engagements

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Questions 64

Some lime after the final audit report was issued, the engagement supervisor teamed that several internal control deficiencies were not remedied, despite management's previous agreement to remedy them According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate response'5

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor must notify the chief audit executive (CAE) that the deficiencies have not been rectified

B.

The engagement supervisor should rely on professional judgment as to whether the CAE should be informed, or the management action plan should be adjusted

C.

The engagement supervisor should rely on his negotiation skills and issue an ultimatum to management to remedy the control deficiencies

D.

Ensure that these deficiencies are captured in the documentation as high-priority areas to be reviewed during the next audit.

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Questions 65

What information would be most useful to an internal auditor who is attempting to identify specific processes to include in the scope of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Recent organizationwide recognition awards given to employees within the area.

B.

The timing of the most recent audit of the area.

C.

Management's presentation to the board regarding recent area achievements.

D.

Recent area performance indicators against productivity metrics.

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Questions 66

Which of the following actions are appropriate for the chief audit executive to perform when identifying audit resource requirements?

1. Consider employees from other operational areas as audit resources, to provide additional audit coverage in the organization.

2. Approach an external service provider to conduct internal audits on certain areas of the organization, due to a lack of skills in the organization.

3. Suggest to the audit committee that an audit of technology be deferred until staff can be trained, due to limited IT audit skills among the audit staff.

4. Communicate to senior management a summary report on the status and adequacy of audit resources.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 67

According to IIA guidance, which of the following factors should the auditor in charge consider when determining the resource requirements for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The number, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

B.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources and the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

C.

The number, proficiency, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

D.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

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Questions 68

Which of the following approaches to understanding business processes is conducted from a broad organizational perspective and has the greatest risk of overlooking processes that are ultimately critical?

Options:

A.

Process narrative.

B.

Process mapping.

C.

Bottom-up.

D.

Top-down.

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Questions 69

According to IIA guidance, which of the following individuals should receive the final audit report on a compliance engagement for the organization's cash disbursements process?

Options:

A.

The accounts payable supervisor, accounts payable manager, and controller.

B.

The accounts payable manager, purchasing manager, and receiving manager.

C.

The accounts payable supervisor, controller, and treasurer.

D.

The accounts payable manager, chief financial officer, and audit committee.

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Questions 70

Which of the following statements generally true regarding audit engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The best source tor detailed process information is senior management

B.

Audit objectives should be general and do not change.

C.

Computer-assisted audit techniques are typically not useful during engagement planning

D.

Internal auditors should prepare a dented audit program for testing controls

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Questions 71

The final engagement communication contains the following observation:

The internal auditor discovered that three of the 10 contracts reviewed failed to meet the organization's competitive bidding requirements Management explained that senior management deemed these purchases to be critical and awarded them as sole-source."

Which of the following components is missing in the documentation of the observation?

Options:

A.

Criteria.

B.

Effect

C.

Condition

D.

Cause

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Questions 72

According to IIA guidance, which of the following accurately describes the responsibilities of the chief audit executive with respect to the final audit report?

1. Coordinate post-engagement conferences to discuss the final audit report with management.

2. Include management's responses in the final audit report.

3. Review and approve the final audit report.

4. Determine who will receive the final audit report.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 73

Considering the five-attribute approach to documenting deficiencies in an area under review which of the following answers the question. "What should be in place?’’

Options:

A.

Action plan

B.

Recommendation

C.

Condition

D.

Criteria

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Questions 74

Which of the following computerized audit tools or techniques should be used if the internal auditor wants to extract specific files and records in the database?

Options:

A.

An expert or decision support system

B.

Generalized audit software

C.

A system utility program

D.

An integrated test facility

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Questions 75

If there is a significant error or omission in the final audit report that was communicated to management, which of the following is the key action for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Communicate the corrected information to the manager of the audited department.

B.

There should be a follow-up audit to address the error or omission.

C.

The auditor should update the scope of the audit to include the omission.

D.

The corrected communication should be redistributed to the original recipients.

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Questions 76

An internal auditor uses a data query tool in the purchasing process to review the vendor master file for authorizations Which of the following describes the control objective likely being tested?

Options:

A.

Effectiveness

B.

Response

C.

Efficiency

D.

Mitigation.

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Questions 77

What type of audit engagement would be the most appropriate to determine how an organization could be more profitable in the long term?

Options:

A.

Operational audit

B.

Compliance and financial audit

C.

Performance audit

D.

Quality audit

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Questions 78

A chief audit executive (CAE) is determining which engagements to include on the annual audit plan. She would like to consider the organization's attitude toward risk and the degree of difficulty in achieving objectives. Which of the following resources should the CAE consult?

Options:

A.

The corporate risk register.

B.

The strategic plan.

C.

Internal and external audit reports.

D.

The board's meeting records.

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Questions 79

According to IIA guidance, which of re following actions should the internal auditor take immediately after having considered fraud scenarios and identified and prioritized fraud risks?

Options:

A.

Determine which controls if any are in place to mitigate the fraud risks

B.

Follow protocol for internal reporting and investigating fraud allegations

C.

Research frauds that nave occurred t\ similar organizations

D.

Incorporate the fraud risk assessment into the engagement plan

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Questions 80

An organization's finance manager plans to implement a state-of-the-art management system to better manage the organization's receivables. The finance manager consulted the chief audit executive (CAE) and asked for her assistance in determining whether the organization is able to accommodate this system. How would the CAE proceed to determine the objectives of this engagement

Options:

A.

Ask the CEO to determine the scope and objectives of the engagement

B.

Request that the board disclose its concerns over governance for inclusion in the engagement

C.

Discuss the concerns with the finance manager and work together to agree on the engagement objectives

D.

Review previous audit reports from the area and develop engagement objectives to address the area's key risks and controls

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Questions 81

An internal auditor using the five-attribute approach to document deficiencies in a warehouse shipping process. Which of the following attributes will be included in the workpapers?

Options:

A.

Risk, impact likelihood existing control, recommendation

B.

Condition, cause, effect, recommendation

C.

Condition, cause effect test result

D.

Risk, impact test result recommendation

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Questions 82

An organization's board would like to establish a formal risk management function and has asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to be involved in the process. According to IIA guidance, which of the following roles should the CAE not undertake?

Options:

A.

Manage and coordinate risk management processes.

B.

Audit risk management processes.

C.

Become involved in risk oversight committees, monitoring activities, and status reporting.

D.

Accept management's responsibility for risk management without board approval.

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Questions 83

An internal audit team was conducting an assurance engagement to review segregation of duties in the purchasing function. The internal auditors reviewed a sample of purchase orders from the past two year and discovered that 2 percent were signed by employees who were operating in a designated acting capacity due to employee absence. According to IIA guidance, which of the following attributes of information would most likely assist the auditor in deciding whether to report this finding?

Options:

A.

Sufficiency

B.

Reliability

C.

Relevance

D.

Usefulness

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Questions 84

Which of the following statements about including consulting engagements in the annual internal audit plan is true?

Options:

A.

All requests for consulting engagements must be included in the annual internal audit plan

B.

Assurance engagements must be included in the annual internal audit plan but there is no requirement to include consulting engagements

C.

Consulting engagements do not need to be included m the annual internal audit plan unless requested by the board

D.

The acceptance of proposed consulting engagements into the annual internal audit plan may depend on their ability to add value

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Questions 85

An internal auditor conducted interviews with several employees, documented the interviews analyzed the summaries, and drew a number of conclusions. What sort of audit evidence has the internal auditor primarily obtained?

Options:

A.

Documentary evidence

B.

Testimonial evidence

C.

Analytical evidence

D.

Physical evidence

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Questions 86

Which of the following best describes the guideline for preparing audit engagement workpapers?

Options:

A.

Workpapers should be understandable to the auditor in charge and the chief audit executive.

B.

Workpapers should be understandable to the audit client and the board.

C.

Workpapers should be understandable to another internal auditor who was not involved in the engagement.

D.

Workpapers should be understandable to external auditors and regulatory agencies.

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Questions 87

Which of the following is an appropriate activity when supervising engagements?

Options:

A.

During engagement planning, the audit work program should be discussed between auditors and the engagement supervisor with the supervisor approving the work program.

B.

During fieldwork, scope changes made to the work program are at the auditor's discretion and should be supported adequately in the workpapers.

C.

Engagement supervision is most critical to the fieldwork and reporting phases of the audit, as this is where the majority of the work takes place.

D.

A degree of high supervision to no supervision may be provided to an auditor depending on his level of competence and the complexity of the engagement.

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Questions 88

An organization has a health and safety division that conducts audits to meet regulatory requirements. The chief health and safety officer reports directly to the CEO. Which of the following describes an appropriate role for the chief audit executive (CAE) with regard to the organization's health and safety program?

Options:

A.

The CAE has no role to play, because the chief health and safety officer reports to a senior executive.

B.

The CAE should coordinate with, and review the work of, the chief health and safety officer to gain an understanding of whether risks related to health and safety are managed properly.

C.

The CAE should give periodic reports directly to the regulator regarding health and safety issues, as it is the appropriate regulatory oversight body.

D.

The CAE should hire an independent external specialist to conduct an annual assessment and provide assurance over the effectiveness of the health and safety program and the reliability of its reports.

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Questions 89

Which of the following engagements is likely to be most appropriate for an organization that is planning an acquisition?

Options:

A.

A performance engagement.

B.

A system security engagement.

C.

A due diligence engagement.

D.

A compliance engagement.

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Questions 90

When developing the scope of an audit engagement, which of the following would the internal auditor typically not need to consider?

Options:

A.

The need and availability of automated support.

B.

The potential impact of key risks.

C.

The expected outcomes and deliverables.

D.

The operational and geographic boundaries.

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Questions 91

An audit client responded to recommendations from a recent consulting engagement. The client indicated that several recommended process improvements would not be implemented. Which of the following actions should the internal audit activity take in response?

Options:

A.

Escalate the unresolved issues to the board, because they could pose significant risk exposures to the organization.

B.

Confirm the decision with management and document this decision in the audit file.

C.

Document the issue in the audit file and follow up until the issues are resolved.

D.

Initiate an assurance engagement on the unresolved issues.

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Questions 92

An internal auditor is conducting an initial risk assessment of an audit area and wants to assess management's compliance with privacy laws for safeguarding customer information stored on the organization's servers. Which course of action is appropriate for this phase of the engagement?

Options:

A.

Solicit the services of a specialist information systems auditor

B.

Obtain the most current approved copies of the organization's privacy policy

C.

Consult with legal counsel about new privacy laws to establish appropriate criteria

D.

Consider the detection risk of noncompliance with the laws

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Questions 93

Which of the following parties is accountable for ensuring adequate support for conclusions and opinions readied by the internal audit activity while relying on external auditors' work?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

External auditors

C.

Chief audit executive

D.

Senior management

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Questions 94

Which of the following is an inherent risk of issuing an opinion on the overall effectiveness of internal control?

Options:

A.

The results of individual engagements do not support a satisfactory opinion on the effectiveness of internal control.

B.

The results of the individual engagements do not support a positive assurance opinion on the effectiveness of internal control

C.

The audit risk and associated legal implications increase

D.

The reliance on other assurance providers increases

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Questions 95

Which of the following is an effective approach for internal auditors to take to improve collaboration with audit clients during an engagement?

1. Obtain control concerns from the client before the audit begins so the internal auditor can tailor the scope accordingly.

2. Discuss the engagement plan with the client so the client can understand the reasoning behind the approach.

3. Review test criteria and procedures where the client expresses concerns about the type of tests to be conducted.

4. Provide all observations at the end of the audit to ensure the client is in agreement with the facts before publishing the report.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Questions 96

The chief audit executive (CAE) of an organization has completed this year’s risk-based audit plan and realized that current staff resources are insufficient to meet the needs of the plan. What course of action should the CAE take?

Options:

A.

Amend the audit plan so that available audit resources are adequate to meet the plan’s requirements.

B.

Inform the board and senior management of the resources needed, as well as the associated risks.

C.

Communicate early to those unit managers whose areas would most likely not be able to get reviewed.

D.

Get approval from human resources regarding overtime payment to be made in an effort to complete the audit plan.

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Questions 97

Which of the following analytical procedures should an internal auditor use to determine whether monthly expenses for the accounting department are reasonable?

Options:

A.

Review year-over-year trending of total dollars spent in each period.

B.

Review changes to the vendor master file for suspicious activity.

C.

Review the percentage of on-time payments against prior periods.

D.

Review total expenses for accounting against other department expenses in the organization.

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Questions 98

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding the exit conference for an internal audit engagement?

Options:

A.

A primary purpose of the exit conference is to provide for the timely communication of observations that call for immediate management action.

B.

Both the chief audit executive and the chief executive over the activity or function reviewed must attend the exit conference to validate the findings.

C.

The exit conference provides only anticipated results for inclusion in the final audit communication.

D.

During the exit conference, the performance of the internal auditors who executed the engagement is reviewed.

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Questions 99

A corporate merger decision prompts the cruel audit executive (CAE) to propose interim changes lo the existing annual audit plan to account for emerging risks. When of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take regarding the changes made to the audit plan?

Options:

A.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the board for approval

B.

Communicate with the chief financial officer and present the revised audit plan to the CEO for approval

C.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the CEO for approval

D.

Communicate with the CCO and present the revised audit plan to the board for approval

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Questions 100

Which of the following statements is false regarding audit criteria?

Options:

A.

Audit criteria should be consistent across audit assignments.

B.

Audit criteria should represent reasonable standards against which to assess existing conditions.

C.

Audit criteria should provide flexibility but allow identification of nonadherence.

D.

Audit criteria should equate to good or acceptable management practices.

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Questions 101

Which of the following is the most important determinant of the objectives and scope of assurance engagements?

Options:

A.

The organizational chart, business objectives and policies and procedures of the area to be reviewed.

B.

The most recent risk assessment conducted by management of the area to be reviewed.

C.

The requests of operational and senior management throughout the organization.

D.

The preliminary risk assessment performed by internal auditors planning the engagement

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Questions 102

An organization has a mature control environment but limited internal audit resources Given this scenario, on which of the following should the internal auditors focus their testing?

Options:

A.

Detective compensating controls

B.

Preventive compensating controls

C.

Detective Key controls

D.

Preventive key controls

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Questions 103

Which of The following best justifies an internal auditor's decision to issue a preliminary audit report?

Options:

A.

The internal audit team and audit client have a serious dispute over the scope and objective of the engagement

B.

The internal audit team expects management to address certain issues immediately due to their severe impact

C.

The internal audit team anticipates that the formal final audit report would be undesirable for management due to the significance of outlined risks

D.

The internal audit team would like to issue a clean final audit report without any material observations or risks

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Questions 104

Which of the following would offer the strongest evidence to support the internal auditor's conclusion that a product is in stock, as stated in the accounting records?

Options:

A.

The auditor performs an observation.

B.

The vendor provides third-party confirmation.

C.

The auditor documents interviews with multiple warehouse personnel.

D.

Warehouse management submits photographs of the product on the inventory shelf.

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Questions 105

Which method of examining entity-level controls involves gathering information from work groups that represent different levels in an organization?

Options:

A.

Questionnaires.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Structured interviews

D.

Facilitated team workshops

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Questions 106

An organization buys crude oil on the open market and refines it into a high-quality gasoline. The price of crude oil is extremely volatile. Which of the following is the most appropriate risk management technique to protect the organization against these price fluctuations?

Options:

A.

Enter into long-term gasoline purchase agreements with end customers.

B.

Trade crude oil derivatives at financial markets in order to benefit from price fluctuations

C.

Purchase crude oil-related derivatives such as futures or options

D.

Stock as much raw materials as possible and consider Investing into additional facilities

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Questions 107

An internal auditor tested whether purchase orders were supported by appropriately approved purchase requisitions She sampled a population of purchase documents and identified instances where purchase requisitions were missing However, she did not notice that n some cases purchase requisitions were approved by an unauthorized person Which of the following risks most appropriately describes this situation?

Options:

A.

Nonsampling risk

B.

Sampling risk

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Due diligence risk

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Questions 108

When me internal audit activity does not have sufficient time to complete its usual root cause analysis which c4 the following is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive may recommend that management conduct further work to identify the root cause and address the issue

B.

Internal auditors should finish the engagement without conducting the root cause analysis and draft the audit report, though the report would not be considered complete until the analysis is concluded

C.

internal auditors must adjust their future engagement schedule to ensure that the root cause analysis is always performed before the engagement is concluded

D.

Internal auditors should Instead perform a Pareto rule analysis

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Questions 109

Management testimony of improper segregation of duties in the cash receipt process can be considered which of the following?

Options:

A.

Analytical

B.

Reliable

C.

Relevant

D.

Sufficient

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Questions 110

Which of the following is a detective control for managing the risk of fraud?

Options:

A.

Awareness of prior incidents of fraud.

B.

Contractor non-disclosure agreements.

C.

Verification of currency exchange rates.

D.

Receipts for employee expenses.

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Questions 111

Which of the following statements accurately describes the Standards requirement for ret internal audit records?

Options:

A.

Retention requirements for internal audit records should be compliant with ones set for external audit records

B.

Retention requirements should take into account the medium in which internal audit records are stored

C.

Retention requirements should be set by the chief audit executive and aligned will the organization s process and procedures

D.

Retention requirements should set a minimum period of the for records storage and the process of archiving documents

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Questions 112

A chief audit executive is preparing interview questions for the upcoming recruitment of a senior internal auditor. According to IIA guidance, which of the following attributes shows a candidate's ability to probe further when reviewing incidents that have the appearance of misbehavior?

Options:

A.

Integrity.

B.

Flexibility.

C.

Initiative.

D.

Curiosity.

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Questions 113

Which of the following is the most appropriate approach for the internal audit activity to follow up on management action plans?

Options:

A.

Create a tracking system for follow up

B.

Ensure that follow-up activities are performed at least weekly.

C.

Delegate follow-up activities to qualified administrative staff within the business unit

D.

Ensure that follow-up activities are performed by the most senior auditor on staff

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Questions 114

The chief audit executive of a medium-sized financial institution is evaluating the staffing model of the internal audit activity (IAA). According to IIA guidance, which of the following are the most appropriate strategies to maximize the value of the current IAA resources?

• The annual audit plan should include audits that are consistent with the skills of the IAA.

• Audits of high-risk areas of the organization should be conducted by internal audit staff.

• External resources may be hired to provide subject-matter expertise but should be supervised.

• Auditors should develop their skills by being assigned to complex audits for learning opportunities.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Questions 115

Which of the following best describes external benchmarking using trend analysis for a subsidiary of an international company?

Options:

A.

Comparing the current ratio of the subsidiary with the current ratio of another company for the same period

B.

Comparing common-size financial statements of the subsidiary with the averages of the industry for the last two periods

C.

Comparing the sales of the subsidiary with the sales of another subsidiary for the last two periods.

D.

Comparing the sales of the subsidiary with the budgeted figures for the last two periods

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Questions 116

An internal auditor is examining the organization's internal control processes. Which of the following would the auditor do to test the reliability of a customer database1?

Options:

A.

Perform a site visit to see whether the organization's servers are operational

B.

Interview end users to determine whether they understand how to use the database information

C.

Determine whether policies are in place on how to use the database information

D.

Review for indications of potential issues with the database information

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Questions 117

An audit observation states the following:

"Despite the rules of the organization there is no approved credit risk management policy in the subsidiary. The subsidiary is concluding contacts with clients who have very high credit ratings. The internal audit team tested 50 contacts and 17 showed clients with a poor credit history"

Which of the following components are missing in the observation?

Options:

A.

Cause and effect.

B.

Effect and criteria

C.

Condition and cause

D.

Criteria and condition.

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Questions 118

According to IIA guidance, how should an internal auditor apply any relevant information obtained from an internal consulting engagement during a related internal audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Document any facts obtained and include them as part of the audit engagement workpapers.

B.

Rely upon the information to draw conclusions about the effectiveness of controls.

C.

Use the knowledge obtained to evaluate the effectiveness of internal control processes.

D.

Objectivity requires that this information should not be used in any part of the audit engagement.

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Questions 119

An internal auditor has been asked to join a project team to help design controls in a software application to address specific risks that have been identified by the team Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the internal auditor to perform?

Options:

A.

Facilitate a control assessment to ensure all application risks were appropriately identified

B.

Advise the project team on how to develop effective controls

C.

Direct the project team to implement the appropriate controls within the software application

D.

Provide assurance that the design of the controls will mitigate the identified application risks

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Questions 120

An internal auditor s testing tor proper authorization of contracts and finds that the rate of deviations discovered in the sample is equal to the tolerable deviation rate. When of the following is the most appropriate conclusion for the internal auditor to make based on this result?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor concludes that management may be placing undue reliance on me specified control

B.

The internal auditor concludes that the specified control is more effective than it really is.

C.

The internal auditor concludes that the specified control is acceptably effective

D.

The internal auditor concludes that additional testing will be required to evaluate the specified control

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Questions 121

According to MA guidance, which of the following factors should an internal auditor consider when assessing the likelihood of fraud risk1?

Options:

A.

The effect on the organization's reputation

B.

Any potential damage to the organization's relationship with customers.

C.

Past fraud allegations and actual occurrences

D.

The potential and realized financial impacts

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Questions 122

An internal auditor e assessing the design of a control and has identified a potential significant weakness. The auditor shared his concern with management however management does not agree that the weakness is significant. What should the internet auditor do next?

Options:

A.

Perform additional audit work to better articulate the risk

B.

Report the finding that management has accepted a level of risk that is unacceptable.

C.

Proceed to testing how effectively the control is opening.

D.

Because the design weakness has been identified no additional audit work is needed

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Questions 123

Which of the following is not a primary reason for outsourcing a portion of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

To gain access to a wider variety of skills, competencies and best practices.

B.

To complement existing expertise with a required skill and competency for a particular audit engagement.

C.

To focus on and strengthen core audit competencies.

D.

To provide the organization with appropriate contingency planning for the internal audit function.

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Questions 124

After concluding a preliminary assessment, the engagement supervisor prepared a draft work program According to HA guidance which of the following would be tested by this program?

Options:

A.

The process objectives.

B.

The process risks

C.

The process controls

D.

The process scope

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Questions 125

A chief audit executive (CAE) a developing a work program for an upcoming engagement that will review an organization’s small contracting services. When of the following would the CAT need to consider most when developing the work program?

Options:

A.

The contracting department's staffing changes within the last year

B.

The certifications held by the internal auditors assigned to the engagement

C.

The internal audit activity's increase n budget and staffing for the year

D.

The organization's recent changes to how it processes payments

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Questions 126

To effectively communicate the acceptance of risk in an organization a chief audit executive must first consider which of the following?

Options:

A.

The organization's view on risk tolerance

B.

The organization's principal risk events.

C.

The organization's risk response strategies

D.

The organization's major control activities

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Questions 127

The engagement supervisor would like lo change the audit program's scope poor to beginning fieldwork According to IIA guidance before any change is implemented what is the most important action that should be undertaken?

Options:

A.

Document in the engagement workpapers the rationale for changing the scope.

B.

Confirm that the scope change would align to the organization's objectives and goals

C.

Confirm that the internal audit activity continues to have the necessary knowledge and skills

D.

Seek approval from the chief audit executive for the proposed scope change

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Questions 128

According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding heat maps?

Options:

A.

A heat map sets likelihood to have higher priority than impact.

B.

A heat map sets impact to have higher priority than likelihood.

C.

A heat map recognizes that the priority of impact and likelihood can vary.

D.

A heat map recognizes impact and likelihood as equally important

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Questions 129

Which of the following is an example of a properly supervised engagement?

Options:

A.

Auditors are asked to keep a daily record of their activity for review by the auditor in charge following the engagement.

B.

The senior internal auditor requires each auditor to review and initial colleagues' workpapers for completeness and format.

C.

A new internal auditor is accompanied by an experienced auditor during a highly sensitive fraud investigation.

D.

The auditor in charge provides reasonable assurance that engagement objectives were met.

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Questions 130

According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding the annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

The annual audit plan should only be adjusted in response to problems with resourcing, scope, and data availability.

B.

The chief audit executive (CAE) may incorporate risk information, including risk appetite levels from management for the audit plan at her discretion.

C.

In an immature risk management environment it is preferable for the CAE to rely solely on her judgment regarding risk identification and assessment to develop the audit plan.

D.

The CAE may make adjustments to the annual audit plan as needed without senior management or board approval.

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Questions 131

An organization's internal audit plan includes a recurring assurance review of the human resources (HR) department. Which of the following statements is true regarding preliminary communication between the auditor in charge (AIC) and the HR department?

1. The AIC should notify HR management when the draft audit plan is being developed, as a courtesy.

2. The AIC should notify HR management before the planning stage begins.

3. The AIC should schedule formal status meetings with HR management at the start of the engagement.

4. The AIC should finalize the scope of the engagement before communicating with HR management.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 132

Which of the following constitutes supervisory activity undertaken during the planning phase of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the process owner with the engagement objectives

B.

Reviewing engagement draft reports

C.

Ensuring workpapers support audit findings

D.

Approving audit work programs

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Questions 133

A chief audit executive (CAE) following up on action plans from previously completed audits identifies that management has determined that certain action plans are no longer necessary If the CAE disagrees with management's decision, which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

The CAE must discuss the matter with senior management

B.

The CAE must discuss the matter with key shareholders

C.

The CAE must discuss the matter with legal counsel

D.

The CAE must discuss the matter with the board

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Questions 134

According to IIA guidance, which of the following typically serves as the basis for an engagement work program?

Options:

A.

Past audit findings.

B.

Scope and audit objectives.

C.

Techniques and resources.

D.

Stakeholders' expectations.

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Questions 135

According to IIA guidance, which of the following are the most important objectives for helping to ensure the appropriate completion of an engagement?

1. Coordinate audit team members to ensure the efficient execution of all engagement procedures.

2. Confirm engagement workpapers properly support the observations, recommendations, and conclusions.

3. Provide structured learning opportunities for engagement auditors when possible.

4. Ensure engagement objectives are reviewed for satisfactory achievement and are documented properly.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 136

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements are true regarding the internal audit plan?

1. The audit plan is based on an assessment of risks to the organization.

2. The audit plan is designed to determine the effectiveness of the organization's risk management process.

3. The audit plan is developed by senior management of the organization.

4. The audit plan is aligned with the organization's goals.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

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Questions 137

During the preliminary survey of the procurement department, an internal auditor noted a major control weakness in the organization's ordering and receiving process. According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action the internal auditor should take?

Options:

A.

Issue a final report on the control weakness to senior management.

B.

Bring the control weakness to the attention of the process owner for resolution.

C.

Note the control weakness for discussion during the exit meeting.

D.

Carry out an investigation of the control weakness for disciplinary action.

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Questions 138

Which of the following is the primary reason the chief audit executive should consider the organization's strategic plans when developing the annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

Strategic plans reflect the organization's business objectives and overall attitude toward risk.

B.

Strategic plans are helpful to identify major areas of activity, which may direct the allocation of internal audit activity resources.

C.

Strategic plans are likely to show areas of weak financial controls.

D.

The strategic plan is a relatively stable document on which to base audit planning.

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Questions 139

The internal audit activity has become aware of public complaints regarding the sales practices of telephone marketing personnel in a large organization. The internal auditors decide to review a sample of all complaints within the last three months to ensure they are reflective of current marketing practices. Which of the following best describes this sampling technique?

Options:

A.

Judgmental sampling

B.

Random sampling

C.

Discovery sampling

D.

Statistical sampling

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Questions 140

In which of the following ways can the internal audit activity new engagement opportunities?

Options:

A.

By defining activities by business processes.

B.

By looking external factors such as product complaints.

C.

By looking at activities by businesses cost centers.

D.

By defining activities by the organization chart.

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Questions 141

A newly promoted chief audit executive (CAE) is faced with a backlog of assurance engagement reports to review for approval. In an attempt to attach a priority for this review, the CAE scans the opinion statement on each report. According to IIA guidance, which of the following opinions would receive the lowest review priority?

1. Graded positive opinion.

2. Negative assurance opinion.

3. Limited assurance opinion.

4. Third-party opinion.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 142

An engagement work program o of greatest value to audit management when which of the following is true?

Options:

A.

The work program provides more detailed support for the audit report

B.

The work program helps determined the required amount of audit resources

C.

The work program helps ensure tie achievement of the engagement objectives

D.

The work program assists the auditor n developing and managing audit tests

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Questions 143

As part of internal audit's assistance with an annual external audit, the internal auditors are required to do a preliminary analytical review of an bank account balances. This involves verifying the current year end balances as web as comparing the current year end balances with previous year end balances to highlight significant changes. Which of the following is the most reliable source for verification of the current year end bank balances?

Options:

A.

Bank confirmations

B.

Internal bonk statements

C.

Bank reconciliations as of the end of the year

D.

Bank account general ledger balancer as of the end of the year

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Questions 144

The internal audit activity of an insurance company is reviewing six of the company’s 11 branches. During the review of the fourth branch that was selected, the internal audit team discovered control breaches that could result in regulatory sanctions if not addressed. How should the internal audit team proceed?

Options:

A.

Communicate immediately to the relevant regulatory agency the information regarding the company's control breaches along with details of recommended corrective actions to address the issue.

B.

Complete the branch reviews, ensure that the issue and impact are adequately detailed in the audit report, hold an exit meeting to discuss the issue with branch management, and provide recommendations for corrective actions.

C.

Have a discussion with branch management on the matter and recommend in an interim audit report that management take appropriate corrective action in order to address the current identified issues.

D.

Expand the audit to include the branches that were not previously selected and determine whether there are similar control breaches at those branches prior to compiling a comprehensive audit report and reporting the issue to senior management and the board.

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Questions 145

Which of the following is the best option for the chief audit executive to consider for effective coordination of assurance coverage?

Options:

A.

Create an assurance map to illustrate each provider's level of assurance and planned activities for each area of the organization

B.

LIMIT© ricks inventory to identify the risks and controls in place and the relevant control owners.

C.

Rely on the risk and control and management testing information maintained for compliance with the regulatory framework

D.

Prepare a risk likelihood and impact heal map to prioritize assurance coverage coordination.

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Questions 146

During a review of the treasury function an internal auditor identified a risk that all bank accounts may net to include in the daily reconciliation process.

Which of the following responses would be most effective to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

The treasury supervisor establishes a threshold for amounts on bank statements to be reconciled against data in the system

B.

The treasury analyst performs a daily reconciliation of al bank statements obtained via email against data in the system

C.

The treasury analyst reviews a daily report automatically generated by the treasury system, which shows bank statements that have not been uploaded into the accounting system.

D.

The treasury supervisor seeks an annual confirmation from the bank regarding the bank statements processed within a year

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Questions 147

An internal auditor has discovered that duplicate payments were made to one vendor. Management has recouped the duplicate payments as a corrective action. Which of the following describes management’s action in this case?

Options:

A.

A condition-based action plan.

B.

A cause-based action plan.

C.

A root cause-based action plan.

D.

An effect-based action plan.

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Questions 148

According to the IIA guidance, which of the following foes the engagement work test in a review in a review of an organization al process?

Options:

A.

Process objectives

B.

Process risks

C.

Process controls

D.

Process scope

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part2
Exam Name: Practice of Internal Auditing
Last Update: Jan 18, 2025
Questions: 495

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