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IIA-CFSA Certified Financial Services Auditor Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which one of the following does NOT depicts a common indexing method?

Options:

A.

The annual ratchet

B.

The point to point method

C.

The high water mark method

D.

The low water mark method

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Questions 5

Which one of the following is not commonly granted trustee’s powers?

Options:

A.

Pertaining to the retention, purchase and sale of assets

B.

Those pertaining to distributions of principal

C.

Those pertaining to make dealings

D.

None of these

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Questions 6

The accumulation phase in annuities can last from as long as:

Options:

A.

One day to five years

B.

One day to decades

C.

Ten days to ten years

D.

All of these

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Questions 7

Which of the following are duties of insurance commissioners in regulating insurers?

I. Rule of the constitutionality of insurance law.

II. Determine if an insurer meets the requirements to obtain a license.

III. Render decisions on the meaning of policy terms.

IV. Conduct financial investigations of insurers operating in the state.

Options:

A.

I and II only

B.

I and III only

C.

II and IV only

D.

I, II, and III.

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Questions 8

Liability insurance is a part of general insurance system of _________.

Options:

A.

Risk involvement

B.

Risk transference

C.

Risk management

D.

Self-help funds

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Questions 9

Optional basic and supplement life insurances are the variants of:

Options:

A.

Ordinary life insurance

B.

Group life insurance

C.

Accidental death and Dismemberment

D.

None of these

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Questions 10

The trustee is responsible for producing a schedule of distribution which includes information as:

Options:

A.

Assets and their current fair market value

B.

The method of distribution

C.

Each beneficiary’s share of assets and the trust’s liability

D.

All of these

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Questions 11

A UIT typically issues redeemable securities (or “units”), like a mutual fund, which means:

Options:

A.

That the UITs typically will make a one-time “public offering”

B.

A UIT does not activity trade its investment portfolio

C.

That the UIT will, buy back an investor’s request at their approximate net asset value

D.

All of these

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Questions 12

A bond currently priced at $1,250 with a 10% nominal yield of $100 would have a current field of _____________. The same bond priced at $800 would have a current yield of __________.

Options:

A.

9%, 12.5%

B.

12.5%, 9%

C.

8%, 12.5%

D.

12.5%, 8%

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Questions 13

Managed care health techniques are most often practical by organizations and professionals that assume risk for a/an:

Options:

A.

Infinite population

B.

Finite or defined population

C.

None of these

D.

Any one of these

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Questions 14

Customer accounts:

Ensure that the firm is exercising due diligence in the opening and supervision of customer accounts. The procedures should be formalized in writing and in accordance with the rules and regulations of the appropriate regulatory authority.

Ensure that daily customer positions and option exercises are in accordance with the limits established by the appropriate exchange. Verify that commissions generated by customer trades are properly calculated and posted to the general ledger.

Options:

A.

This is one of the primary audit objectives of stock and options

B.

This is one of the primary audit objectives of swaps

C.

This is one of the primary audit objectives of bonds

D.

None of these

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Questions 15

Which of the following situation would not impair audit objectivity?

Options:

A.

An auditor is assigned to audit a business function that the auditor was responsible for nine months ago

B.

An individual temporarily assigned to the internal audit activity because of the individual’sexpert knowledge in a particular business function assigned to audit an activity that theindividual was responsible for just prior to transferring to the internal audit activity

C.

An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the auditor participated in the design process

D.

An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the auditor performed a procedure review and made control recommendations prior to the system’s implementation

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Questions 16

Risk is the probability that an event or action may adversely affect the organization or activity under review. In other words, risk is anything that can prevent an organization from achieving an objective. Major components of risk are as follows EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Non- Compliance with the laws, rules and regulations

B.

An event or cause that can interfere with achieving the objective (e.g. What can go wrong?)

C.

A probability or likelihood of occurrence

D.

The negative consequences of not achieving the objective

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Questions 17

Low-risk scores are those with an average of scores:

Options:

A.

2.25 or less

B.

2.75 or less

C.

2.00 or less

D.

3.25 or less

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Questions 18

Interest rates offered on new CDs changes:

Options:

A.

Daily at most banks

B.

Twice a day at most banks

C.

Weekly at most banks

D.

Monthly at most banks

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Questions 19

Organization’s Objectives are described in three general categories:

Options:

A.

Effectiveness of operations, Efficiency of strategic plans, Reliability of internal and external reporting

B.

Effectiveness of operations, Efficiency of strategic plans, Reliability of internal and external reporting, compliance with applicable laws and regulations

C.

Effectiveness and Efficiency of operations, Compliance with applicable laws and regulations, Monitoring and management control system

D.

Effectiveness and Efficiency of operations, Reliability of internal and external reporting, Compliance with applicable laws and regulations

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Questions 20

Auditors define audit objectives based on information gained:

Options:

A.

From external sources of the organization

B.

Either from knowledge they already have or from inquiries and observations

C.

From internal sources of the organization

D.

From external sources of the organization

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Questions 21

Carefully crafted audit objectives are important BECAUSE:

Options:

A.

Objectives provide direction

B.

Limit collection of unneeded information

C.

Control scope, methodology, timing and nature of audit work

D.

All of the above

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Questions 22

_________ insures the real estate loans of borrowers who qualify for the program.

Options:

A.

Federal Housing Administration

B.

Department of veterans Affairs

C.

Mortgage Brokers

D.

None of these

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Questions 23

A sound Asset/Liability management policy must manage following risk EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Credit Risk

B.

Capital Risk

C.

Interest-Rate risk

D.

None of these

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Questions 24

Which of the following are generally considered to be characteristics of savings deposits?

I. Interest bearing.

II. No stated maturity.

III. Penalty for withdrawal.

Options:

A.

I and II only.

B.

II and III only.

C.

II and III only.

D.

I, II, and III.

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Questions 25

These are the most common type of municipal bonds and are backed by projected revenue streams from the infrastructure built by the bond. These revenues can be in the form of rental r user fees for facilities or even tolls for road improvements. What are these?

Options:

A.

Doubled barreled bonds

B.

Moral obligation bonds

C.

Special tax bonds

D.

Revenue bonds

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Questions 26

Most municipal and corporate bonds are rated by an independent rating firm such as Standard & Poor’s (S&P) or Moody’s. These ratings provide investors with information regarding the risk of default on the bond issue. The higher rated bonds are considered _________.

Options:

A.

Investment grade bonds

B.

Speculative bonds

C.

Junk bonds

D.

Blue chip bonds

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Questions 27

_____________ loans allow the consumer to repay a loan over a set period. They require periodic principal and interest payments The loan is generally secured by the item being purchased. Automobile loans or real estate mortgage loans are common types of such types of loans.

Options:

A.

Installment loans

B.

Consumer loans

C.

Residential loans

D.

Asset-based loans

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Questions 28

Bank may serve as trustee or custodian for pension and profit sharing plans that self- employed individuals establish for them selves and their employees. These types of trust are referred to as:

Options:

A.

Defined benefit plans

B.

Keogh plans

C.

Individual retirement account

D.

None of these

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Questions 29

Which one of the following is/are NOT the type of retirement plans that banks may administer?

Options:

A.

Pension plans

B.

Self-employed retirements trust

C.

Group retirement accounts

D.

Post-requirement accounts

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Questions 30

Notes and bonds are long-term debt instruments. Long-term debt instruments are sold at ______________ when the market rate _____________ the stated interest rate.

Options:

A.

Discount, exceeds

B.

Premium, exceeds

C.

Discount, less than

D.

Premium, less than

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Questions 31

Internal auditing controls (e.g. segregation of duties, monitoring, reconciliation), management controls (e.g. the plan, methods and procedures adopted by management to ensure its goals are met, including systems for measuring reporting and monitoring program performance), physical controls (e.g. security), and Information technology control (e.g. access security controls ,data center operation controls). All these are examples of:

Options:

A.

Detective controls

B.

Control activities

C Corrective controls

D Preventive controls

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Questions 32

Banks can record interest earned on trading securities as either interest income or trading income. However, the recommended method is:

Options:

A.

To report interest income separately from trading income if the amount is material

B.

To report interest income with trading income if the amount is material

C.

To report interest income separately from trading income if the amount is not material

D.

To report interest income with trading income if the amount is not material

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Questions 33

When conducting an audit of securities investments, the following objectives and audit steps should be considered EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Determine whether policies, procedures, practices, and internal controls over security investments are adequate and being followed

B.

Determine whether transactions are properly authorized and recorded. Verify that dividend or interest income is accurately calculated and recorded in the general ledger

C.

Determine that the institution has an adequate process for reconciling subsidiary records to the general ledger on a regular basis

D.

Determine whether the institution adequately control and records the sold securities in balance sheet

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Questions 34

Visa and MasterCard have teamed up to develop payment card Industry ( PCI) Data Security standards to govern the safekeeping of account information. Which of the following is NOT out of the major goals of PCI standards?

Options:

A.

Build and maintain secure network

B.

Protect Card holder Data

C.

Maintain vulnerability management program and regularly monitor and test networks

D.

Annual review of an information security policy

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Questions 35

“An element of information, from a transaction to an entire system, is appropriately entered, developed, changed, or used with proper authority.” Which of the following element of integrity supports this statement?

Options:

A.

Authorized

B.

Accurate

C.

Complete

D.

Timely

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Questions 36

Financial institutions regularly identify uncollectible accounts and charge them off against the reserve of:

Options:

A.

Unearned loan revenue

B.

Loan losses

C.

Loan expenses

D.

All of these

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Questions 37

A client makes the following statement: “If you make us put property tags and numbers on major equipment, next we will have to put tags on every pen, pencil, and paper clip in the place.” This is the argument that if a particular action is taken, it will inevitably lead to another, less desirable action. We may call this:

Options:

A.

Slippery slope

B.

Hasty generalization

C.

False use of authority

D.

Ad Hominem

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Questions 38

Which one of the following statements elaborates some insurance products that fall under the regulatory authority of SEC?

Options:

A.

Investment based insurance products

B.

Agents selling investment based insurance products

C.

Term insurance products

D.

Only A&B

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Questions 39

How many member states of the European Union are participating in the single Euro Currency?

Options:

A.

Ten

B.

Eight

C.

Twelve

D.

Fourteen

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Questions 40

An area of FOMC board responsibilities is the development and administration of regulation that implement major federal laws governing consumer credit, such as:

Options:

A.

Truth bending Act and the equal credit opportunity Act

B.

Home Mortgage disclosure Act and truth savings ACT

C.

Sunshine Act

D.

Only A & b

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Questions 41

Pension plans that an Employer establishes for retired or disabled employees, regardless of whether an employee contributes, are known as:

Options:

A.

Defined benefit plans

B.

Guaranteed Pension benefits

C.

Pre-Pension Schemes

D.

None of the above

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Questions 42

The primary regulatory entities of banking industry include:

Options:

A.

Federal reserve system

B.

Office of the comptroller of the currency

C.

Federal deposit insurance Cooperation

D.

All of these

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Questions 43

Cash and due from other bank accounts that are listed as a caption on the balance sheet include all currency and coin, cash being collected, and account balances with other banks:

Options:

A.

Except material-interest-bearing accounts which should be disclosed separately

B.

Including material interest bearing accounts, which should be disclosed separately.

C.

Preferably material interest bearing accounts.

D.

None of these

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Questions 44

Which statement is correct concerning commercial letters of credit?

Options:

A.

A letter of credit is not a negotiable instrument, and the contract of sale between the buyer and seller is independent of the letter of credit

B.

A letter of credit is not a negotiable instrument, and the contract of sale between the buyer and seller is dependent of the letter of credit

C.

A letter of credit is a negotiable instrument, and the contract of sale between the buyer and seller is independent of the letter of credit

D.

A letter of credit is a negotiable instrument, and the contract of sale between the buyer and seller is dependent on the letter of credit

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Questions 45

Office of the comptroller of the currency:

Options:

A.

Ensures the safety and soundness of the National Banking System

B.

Foster competition by allowing banks to offer new products and services

C.

Improve the efficiency and effectiveness of OCC supervision including regulatory burden

D.

All of these

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Questions 46

Deposit in many banks are insured by the ______________, which ensure that depositors will get their money back up to a stated limit, if a bank should fail:

Options:

A.

Financial Deposit Insurance Corporation

B.

Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation

C.

Federal Deposits and Investment committee

D.

None of these

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Questions 47

A financial institution’s performance in helping to meet the credit needs of its community is evaluated in context of information about:

Options:

A.

Institution (Capacity, Constraints and business strategies)

B.

Institution’s community (demographic and economic data, lending, investment and serviceopportunities

C.

Competitors and peers

D.

All of these

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Questions 48

The mission of the NAIC is to assist State Insurance regulators, individually and collectively, in serving the public interest and achieving all the following fundamental insurance regulatory goals in a responsive, efficient and cost effective manner, consistent with the wishes of its members EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Protect the public interest

B.

Promote competitive markets

C.

Support and improve State regulation of insurance

D.

None of these

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Questions 49

Letters of credit are also known as:

Options:

A.

Allowance for loan losses

B.

Bond indentures

C.

Term certificate

D.

Customer acceptances

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Questions 50

A major function of NAIC is to encourage __________ among state insurance departments through the development of model bills and regulations.

Options:

A.

Consistency

B.

Uniformity

C.

Regularity

D.

All of these

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Questions 51

___________ bank balances are bank assets on deposit in other banks.

Options:

A.

“Due from”

B.

“Due to fixed reserves

C.

“Due from reserves”

D.

Both B& C

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Questions 52

One fund may invest on mostly established “blue chip” (Companies that pay regular dividends). Another fund may invest in newer technology companies that pay no dividends but that may have more potential for growth. These are the examples of:

Options:

A.

Mutual funds

B.

Index funds

C.

Stock funds

D.

Bond funds

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Questions 53

Which of the following statements about endowments is correct?

Options:

A.

Endowment insurance pays a benefit amount only if the insured dies during the specified term of coverage

B.

Premiums vary throughout the term of an endowment policy

C.

An endowment can be purchased with a signal Premium or with a series of Premium over a limited period of time

D.

Unlike permanent life insurance policies, endowment policies do not steadily build cash values

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Questions 54

Which of the following accounts would NOT be found on a life insurance company’s statutory financial statements?

Options:

A.

Non admitted assets

B.

Non ledger assets

C.

Deferred acquisition cost

D.

Policy loans

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Questions 55

The management of index funds is _________ than the management of non-index funds, because an index fund manager only needs to track a relatively fixed index of securities.

Options:

A.

More “Passive”

B.

More “Active”

C.

Less “Passive”

D.

Relatively less “Active”

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Questions 56

The purpose of audits of financial statements is to issue an opinion on the fairness of the financial statements and to evaluate all of the following assertions (explicit or implicit) by management EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Existence or occurrence assertions address whether available information addresses actualtransactions, assets, and liabilities

B.

completeness assertions address whether all material financial information is included infinancial statements

C.

Rights and obligations assertions address whether the entity has legal rights to the assets andobligations to the liabilities disclosed on the financial statements

D.

Presentation and disclosure assertions address whether the elements of the financialstatements are properly organized, classified and disclosed

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Questions 57

Stock transfer agent, Bond registrar, stock registrar and dividend reinvestments agent are the additional duties of:

Options:

A.

Brokers/Brokerage houses

B.

Corporate trust departments

C.

Mutual funds agencies

D.

None of these

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Questions 58

Demand deposit account allows customers to transfer money through the use of:

Options:

A.

Checks

B.

ATMs and EFTs

C.

Point of sale (POS) terminals

D.

All of these

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Questions 59

“Internal auditors make a balanced assessment of all the relevant circumstances and are not unduly influenced by their own interests or by others in forming judgments.” This statement best explains one of the following principles:

Options:

A.

Competency

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Objectivity

D.

Integrity

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Questions 60

During the posting process of ledger records on deposit account banks may reject some transactions because:

Options:

A.

They lack proper endorsements

B.

They are subject to stop payments

C.

They would create an over draft

D.

All of these

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Questions 61

Securities products include:

1. Trusts

2. Annuities

3. Derivatives

4. Stocks

5. Bonds

6. Commodities

7. Mutual Funds

8. Pension Funds

9. Term Loans

10. Asset Management

11. Money Market Products

Options:

A.

Only 1, 2, 3,4,5,10,11

B.

Only 1, 3, 5, 10

C.

All except 8, 9

D.

All except 8,9,10

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Questions 62

___________ have relatively low risks, compared to other mutual funds.

Options:

A.

Stock funds

B.

Hedge funds

C.

Money funds

D.

Both B and C

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Questions 63

A heath services delivery organization that offers the option its members choose to receive a service form participating or a non-participating provider which one of the following best suits to the definition?

Options:

A.

Point of service plan

B.

Health maintenance organization (HMO)

C.

Preferred provider organization (PPO)

D.

Independent practice Association (IPA) or organization (IPO)

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Questions 64

Term Life insurance is available in which of the following variant?

Options:

A.

Group team life insurance

B.

Decreasing team life insurance

C.

Level team life insurance

D.

All of these

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Questions 65

Financial institutions regularly identify uncollectible and charge them off against the reserve for loan losses. Auditors should ensure that the institution has developed adequate criteria for charge-offs and select a sample of charged-off loans whether they are handled properly.

Another useful test is:

Options:

A.

To select a sample of loans that are significantly paid inorder to determine whether they meet the charge-off criteria and assess why they have not been charged off

B.

To select a sample of loans that are significantly paid in order to determine whether theymeet the past criteria and assess why they have not been charged off

C.

To select a sample of loans that are significantly paid in order to determine whether theymeet the charge-off criteria and assess why they have not been charged off

D.

To select a sample of loans that are significantly paid in order to determine whether theymeet the charge-off criteria to meet the current requirements

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Questions 66

These are similar to coupon bonds in that ownership is based on possession. These have not been issued for the last couple of decades, however those previously issued will continue to exist until they reach maturity. What are these?

Options:

A.

Registered bonds

B.

Bearer bonds

C.

Book-entry bonds

D.

Putable bonds

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Questions 67

To limit strategic risk management should ensure proper balance between the:

Options:

A.

Mortgage company’s willingness to accept risk and its supporting resources and control

B.

Internal operations and possibility of litigation

C.

Managerial capacities and capabilities and delivery networks

D.

All of these

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Questions 68

Asset Management is the term usually given to describe companies that run manual Funds. The largest are those who provide:

Options:

A.

Passive Funds

B.

ETF (Exchange traded funds)

C.

Index Funds

D.

All of the above

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Questions 69

A special servicer is the servicer who assumes servicing responsibilities when a loan goes into default and conducts the work-out “or foreclosure process. There are various scenarios typical for determining special servicers; as mentioned below, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Those seller/issuers retaining the first-loss piece

B.

Those investing in “B” pieces in return for special services rights.

C.

Those appointed solely because of risk-management expertise.

D.

None of these

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Questions 70

Compliance risk can lead t[o all of the following situations EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Diminished reputation

B.

Reduced franchise value

C.

limited business opportunities

D.

None of these

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Questions 71

An intelligent risks management platform approaches risk from the:

Options:

A.

Higher level

B.

Moderate level

C.

Low/ operational level

D.

Both A and B as it depends

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Questions 72

“A negotiated offering in which a new issue of municipal securities is sold on an agency basis by a placement agent directly to institutional or private investors rather than through an offering to the general investing public” is referred as:

Options:

A.

Public offering

B.

Private placement

C.

over the counter trade

D.

None of these

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Questions 73

These policies provide a death benefit when the insured dies during a specified period. The term of this type of policy is usually not less than one year, but may be up to 40 years or more. It provides only temporary protection because coverage ends at the end of the term of coverage stated in the policy. What are these?

Options:

A.

Term life insurance policies

B.

Level term insurance policies

C.

Decreasing term life insurance policies

D.

Whole life insurance policies

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Questions 74

Known limitations of VaR methodology include the fact that changes in market may not tend to normal distribution (specifically, that very large movements are more likely than predicated by the normal distribution assumption); BECAUSE:

Options:

A.

Correlation between market movement can vary (especially during periods of stress in themarket)

B.

The changes in present values are not perfectly linearly related to changes market rates.

C.

The use of one day horizon does not fully capture the market risk of positions that cannot be liquidated in one day.

D.

All of these

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Questions 75

Which one of the following is common misinterpretation during the calculation of VaR

Options:

A.

The VaR calculation is based on an assumption that the portfolio is held constant over the

time interval in practice are actively managed so that as adverse condition develop actions will be taken to mitigate losses As a result the true probability of a lose as large as that predicted may be much less then Fore cast

B.

The VaR Forecast is based on what has happened in the past If the future is not like the past the realized losses may be the lager (or smaller then predicted)

C.

There is a tendency to interpret VaR as the largest loss that has on X percent probability of being exceeded. The largest that loss that may occur will not be too much larger than the aR, while for other portfolios (particularly those including highly levered derivatives), it may be many times greater than the VaR.

D.

All of the above.

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Questions 76

Default risk is an alternate term used for:

Options:

A.

Liquidity Risk

B.

Credit Risk

C.

Control Activities Risk

D.

Operational Risk

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Exam Code: IIA-CFSA
Exam Name: Certified Financial Services Auditor
Last Update: Nov 27, 2023
Questions: 511
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