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IIA-ACCA ACCA CIA Challenge Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following is a detective control for managing the risk of fraud?

Options:

A.

Awareness of prior incidents of fraud.

B.

Contractor non-disclosure agreements.

C.

Verification of currency exchange rates.

D.

Receipts for employee expenses.

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Questions 5

While conducting an audit of a third party's Web-based payment processor, an internal auditor discovers that a programming error allows customers to create multiple accounts for a single mailing address. Management agrees to correct the program and notify customers with multiple accounts that the accounts will be consolidated. Which of the following actions should the auditor take?

1. Schedule a follow-up review to verify that the program was corrected and the accounts were consolidated.

2. Evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the corrective action proposed by management.

3. Amend the scope of the subsequent audit to verify that the program was corrected and that accounts were consolidated.

4. Submit management's plan of action to the external auditors for additional review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 6

Which of the following best describes the four components of a balanced scorecard?

Options:

A.

Customers, innovation, growth, and internal processes.

B.

Business objectives, critical success factors, innovation, and growth.

C.

Customers, support, critical success factors, and learning.

D.

Financial measures, learning and growth, customers, and internal processes.

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Questions 7

When constructing a staffing schedule for the internal audit activity (IAA), which of the following criteria are most important for the chief audit executive to consider for the effective use of audit resources?

1. The competency and qualifications of the audit staff for specific assignments.

2. The effectiveness of IAA staff performance measures.

3. The number of training hours received by staff auditors compared to the budget.

4. The geographical dispersion of audit staff across the organization.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 8

A newly promoted chief audit executive (CAE) is faced with a backlog of assurance engagement reports to review for approval. In an attempt to attach a priority for this review, the CAE scans the opinion statement on each report. According to IIA guidance, which of the following opinions would receive the lowest review priority?

1. Graded positive opinion.

2. Negative assurance opinion.

3. Limited assurance opinion.

4. Third-party opinion.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 9

The security department uncovered what appears to be a complex fraud in the accounting department. The CEO has requested the internal audit activity to investigate the fraud. If the internal audit staff lacks the expertise to conduct the investigation, how should the chief audit executive proceed?

Options:

A.

Disclose the deficiency, and request that the investigation be reassigned to the first line of defense.

B.

Proceed with the investigation, as internal auditors are not required to have fraud expertise.

C.

Outsource the sensitive investigation to a third-party consultant with fraud expertise.

D.

Select a member of the accounting department who is not involved in the fraud to join the investigation team in a consulting capacity.

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Questions 10

While auditing an organization's credit approval process, an internal auditor learns that the organization has made a large loan to another auditor's relative. Which course of action should the auditor take?

Options:

A.

Proceed with the audit engagement, but do not include the relative's information.

B.

Have the chief audit executive and management determine whether the auditor should continue with the audit engagement.

C.

Disclose in the engagement final communication that the relative is a customer.

D.

Immediately withdraw from the audit engagement.

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Questions 11

Which of the following is a detective control strategy against fraud?

Options:

A.

Requiring employees to attend ethics training.

B.

Performing background checks on employees.

C.

Implementing a control self-assessment.

D.

Performing a surprise audit.

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Questions 12

Which of the following best demonstrates the authority of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Suggesting alternatives to decision makers.

B.

Improving the integrity of information.

C.

Determining the scope of internal audit services.

D.

Achieving engagement objectives.

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Questions 13

Which of the following best ensures the independence of the internal audit activity?

1. The CEO and audit committee review and endorse any changes to the approved audit plan on an annual basis.

2. The audit committee reviews the performance of the chief audit executive (CAE) periodically.

3. The internal audit charter requires the CAE to report functionally to the audit committee.

Options:

A.

3 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

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Questions 14

When developing the scope of an audit engagement, which of the following would the internal auditor typically not need to consider?

Options:

A.

The need and availability of automated support.

B.

The potential impact of key risks.

C.

The expected outcomes and deliverables.

D.

The operational and geographic boundaries.

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Questions 15

The final internal audit report should be distributed to which of the following individuals?

Options:

A.

Audit client management only

B.

Executive management only

C.

Audit client management, executive management, and others approved by the chief audit executive.

D.

Audit client management, executive management, and any those who request a copy.

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Questions 16

According to IIA guidance, which of the following accurately describes the responsibilities of the chief audit executive with respect to the final audit report?

1. Coordinate post-engagement conferences to discuss the final audit report with management.

2. Include management's responses in the final audit report.

3. Review and approve the final audit report.

4. Determine who will receive the final audit report.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 17

Which of the following statements is false regarding roles and responsibilities pertaining to risk management and control?

Options:

A.

Senior management is charged with overseeing the establishment risk management and control processes.

B.

The chief audit executive is responsible for overseeing the evaluation risk management and control processes.

C.

Operating managers are responsible for assessing risks and controls in their departments.

D.

Internal auditors provide assurance about risk management and control process effectiveness.

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Questions 18

According to IIA guidance,which of the following is true about the supervising internal auditor's review notes?

• They are discussed with management prior to finalizing the audit.

• They may be discarded after working papers are amended as appropriate.

• They are created by the auditor to support her fieldwork in case of questions.

• They are not required to support observations issued in the audit report.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

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Questions 19

Which of the following is not a primary reason for outsourcing a portion of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

To gain access to a wider variety of skills, competencies and best practices.

B.

To complement existing expertise with a required skill and competency for a particular audit engagement.

C.

To focus on and strengthen core audit competencies.

D.

To provide the organization with appropriate contingency planning for the internal audit function.

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Questions 20

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the authority of the chief audit executive (CAE) to release previous audit reports to outside parties?

Options:

A.

The CAE can release prior internal audit reports with the approval of the board and senior management.

B.

The CAE can employ judgment and release prior audit results as they deem appropriate and necessary.

C.

The CAE can only release prior information outside the organization when mandated by legal or statutory requirements.

D.

The CAE can release prior information provided it is as originally published and distributed within the organization.

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Questions 21

An internal auditor notes that employees continue to violate segregation-of-duty controls in several areas of the finance department, despite previous audit recommendations. Which of the following recommendations is the most appropriate to address this concern?

Options:

A.

Recommend additional segregation-of-duty reviews.

B.

Recommend appropriate awareness training for all finance department staff.

C.

Recommend rotating finance staff in this area.

D.

Recommend that management address these concerns immediately.

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Questions 22

Which of the following recommendations made by the internal audit activity (IAA) is most likely to help prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

A review of password policy compliance found that employees frequently use the same password more than once during a year. The IAA recommends that the access control software reject any password used more than once during a 12-month period.

B.

A review of internal service-level agreement compliance in financial services found that requests for information frequently are fulfilled up to two weeks late. The IAA recommends that the financial services unit be eliminated for its ineffectiveness.

C.

A vacation policy compliance review found that employees frequently leave on vacation before their leave applications are signed by their manager. The IAA recommends that the manager attend to the leave applications in a more timely fashion.

D.

A review of customer service-level agreements found that orders to several customers are frequently delivered late. The IAA recommends that the organization extend the expected delivery time advertised on its website.

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Questions 23

According to IIA guidance, which of the following factors should the auditor in charge consider when determining the resource requirements for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The number, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

B.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources and the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

C.

The number, proficiency, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

D.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

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Questions 24

An internal control questionnaire would be most appropriate in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

Testing controls where operating procedures vary.

B.

Testing controls in decentralized offices.

C.

Testing controls in high risk areas.

D.

Testing controls in areas with high control failure rates.

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Questions 25

An audit client responded to recommendations from a recent consulting engagement. The client indicated that several recommended process improvements would not be implemented. Which of the following actions should the internal audit activity take in response?

Options:

A.

Escalate the unresolved issues to the board, because they could pose significant risk exposures to the organization.

B.

Confirm the decision with management and document this decision in the audit file.

C.

Document the issue in the audit file and follow up until the issues are resolved.

D.

Initiate an assurance engagement on the unresolved issues.

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Questions 26

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor noted that the time staff spent accessing customer information in large Excel spreadsheets could be reduced significantly through the use of macros. The auditor would like to train staff on how to use the macros. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

The auditor must not perform the training, because any task to improve the business process could impact audit independence.

B.

The auditor must create a new, separate consulting engagement with the business process owner prior to performing the improvement task.

C.

The auditor should get permission to extend the current engagement, and with the process owner's approval, perform the improvement task.

D.

The auditor may proceed with the improvement task without obtaining formal approval, because the task is voluntary and not time-intensive.

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Questions 27

Management is developing and implementing a risk and control framework for use throughout the organization. Which of the following elements should be included in the organization's control framework?

1. Appropriate levels of authority and responsibility.

2. Supervision of staff and appropriate review of work.

3. The seniority of management in the organization.

4. The ability to trace each transaction to an accountable and responsible individual.

Options:

A.

1,2, and 3.

B.

1.2, and 4.

C.

1.3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

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Questions 28

Which of the following actions best demonstrates that an internal auditor is exercising due professional care?

Options:

A.

The auditor performs thorough reviews and provides absolute assurance of regulatory compliance.

B.

The auditor is alert to the possibility of fraud and activities where irregularities are most likely to occur.

C.

The auditor recommends improvements for all of the organization's procedures and practices.

D.

The auditor is cognizant of reducing travel expenses by combining a personal vacation with a business trip.

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Questions 29

Given the highly technical and legal nature of privacy issues, which of the following statements best describes the internal audit activity's responsibility with regard to assessing an organization's privacy framework?

Options:

A.

If an organization does not have a mature privacy framework, the internal audit activity should assist in developing and implementing an appropriate privacy framework.

B.

Because the audit committee is ultimately responsible for ensuring that appropriate control processes are in place to mitigate risks associated with personal information, the internal audit activity is C. required to conduct privacy assessments.

C.

The internal audit activity may delegate to nonaudit IT specialists the responsibility of determining whether personal information has been secured adequately and data protection controls are sufficient.

D.

The internal audit activity should have appropriate knowledge and competence to conduct an asses .......framework.

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Questions 30

A government agency maintains a system of internal control, according to the COSO model, and has made a change to its employee performance reviews and rewards program. This change relates to which of the following components of COSO's internal control framework?

Options:

A.

Control environment.

B.

Control activities.

C.

Information and communication.

D.

Monitoring activities.

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Questions 31

Which of the following is an example of a detective control?

Options:

A.

Automatic shut-off valve.

B.

Auto-correct software functionality.

C.

Confirmation with suppliers and vendors.

D.

Safety instructions.

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Questions 32

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is least compliant with the requirements regarding an internal auditor's need for objectivity?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor assessed the effectiveness of controls over payroll software, which he had helped implement with a previous employer.

B.

An internal auditor participated in an audit of controls around absenteeism, despite providing some consultation on controls in this area earlier in the year.

C.

An internal auditor performed an assurance engagement for the effectiveness of accounts payable access controls, one of which he previously helped to design.

D.

An internal auditor, previously employed in the quality assurance operations area, performed a consulting engagement for the operations manager.

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Questions 33

Which of the following is an example of a directive control?

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties.

B.

Exception reports.

C.

Incentive compensation plans.

D.

Automated reconciliations.

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Questions 34

When auditing the award of a major contract, which of the following should an internal auditor suspect as a red flag for a bidding fraud scheme?

1. Subsequent change orders increase requirements for low-bid items.

2. Material contract requirements are different on the actual contract than on the request for bids.

3. A high percentage of employees are charged to indirect accounts.

4. Losing bidders are hired as subcontractors.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

1 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

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Questions 35

Which of the following statements is true about The IIA Global Internal Audit Competency Framework?

Options:

A.

The core competencies outlined in the framework are not expected of a person undertaking an entry-level position as an internal auditor.

B.

The framework is designed to be used primarily by chief audit executives that are developing indicators to measure the performance of the internal audit activity for which they are responsible.

C.

The framework lists the core competencies internal auditors should possess before attempting to attain The IIA's Certified Internal Auditor certification.

D.

The framework describes competencies needed for individual internal auditors, but not those necessary at the chief audit executive level.

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Questions 36

Which of the following is an example of a management control technique?

Options:

A.

A budget.

B.

A risk assessment.

C.

The board of directors.

D.

The control environment.

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Questions 37

In which of the following scenarios would the chief audit executive (CAE) be required to decline the assignment?

Options:

A.

The CAE would need to procure external services to deliver the internal audit assurance program.

B.

There is no expertise within the internal audit team for detecting and investigating fraud.

C.

There is no expertise within the internal audit team for auditing an IT engagement.

D.

There is no available expertise on the internal audit team to perform a consulting engagement.

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Questions 38

Which of the following is the most common method of fraud detection?

Options:

A.

Analytical reviews of high-risk areas.

B.

Detective controls built into the daily processes.

C.

Unannounced audits or reviews of programs or departments.

D.

Tips received from employees or citizens.

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Questions 39

Which of the following best describes the details that must be included in the quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP) report to senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

The scope and frequency of internal and external assessments as well as the qualifications and independence of the assessor.

B.

The scope and cost of the QAIP. frequency of internal and external assessments, and conclusions of the assessor.

C.

The scope, findings, risks, recommendations, and agreed-upon improvement actions.

D.

The number and types of people involved in the assessment, costs, and duration of the QAIP

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Questions 40

What is the primary benefit to the internal audit activity for undertaking an internal quality assessment?

Options:

A.

To help the internal audit activity complete its annual assurance plan.

B.

To identify inefficiencies within the internal audit team.

C.

To help improve the overall quality of the internal audit activity's work.

D.

To identify key risks and areas of concern within the organization.

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Questions 41

The internal audit activity is planning a procurement audit and needs to obtain a thorough understanding of the subcontracting process, which can involve multiple individuals in multiple countries.

Which of the following internal audit tools would be most effective to document the process and the key controls?

Options:

A.

Internal control checklist.

B.

Procurement employee survey.

C.

Cross-functional flow chart.

D.

Segregation of duties matrix.

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Questions 42

Which of the following actions should the audit committee take to promote organizational independence for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Delegate final approval of the risk-based internal audit plan to the chief audit executive (CAE).

B.

Approve the annual budget and resource plan for the internal audit activity.

C.

Assist the CAE with hiring objective and competent internal audit staff.

D.

Encourage the CAE to communicate and coordinate with the external auditor.

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Questions 43

What is the additional advantage of facilitated workshops, in comparison with structured interviews, used when testing the effectiveness of entity-level controls?

Options:

A.

During facilitated workshops, people more openly say things to internal auditors than during private interviews.

B.

Internal auditors do not need other sources of information, as the data gathered during facilitated workshops is sufficient.

C.

Facilitated workshops create a synergy of discussion that can bring multiple perspectives to the same issue.

D.

The testimonial evidence obtained during facilitated workshops is generally considered more reliable.

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Questions 44

An auditor identifies three errors in the sample of 25 entries selected for review (a 12 percent error rate). Based on this result, the auditor assumes that approximately 59 of the total population of 492 entries are incorrect. To reach this assumption, the auditor has used a technique known as which of the following?

Options:

A.

Variability tolerance.

B.

Ratio estimation.

C.

Stratification.

D.

Acceptance sampling.

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Questions 45

During an audit, the client questions the internal audit activity's authority to perform procedures over fraud allegations. According to HA guidance, which of the following would provide the most relevant support to respond to the client's concerns?

Options:

A.

Definition of Internal Auditing.

B.

MA Standards.

C.

Internal audit charter.

D.

The IIA's Code of Ethics.

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Questions 46

Which of the following techniques would provide the most compelling evidence that a safety hazard exists within a manufacturing facility?

Options:

A.

Observation of the facility during operations.

B.

Questioning of facility management, including the facility safety officer.

C.

Analysis of facility operating reports, focusing on instances when breakdowns occurred.

D.

Review of records involving safety violations, filed by facility production employees.

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Questions 47

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a small internal audit activity (IAA) plans to test conformance with the Standards through a quality assurance review. According to the Standards, which of the following are acceptable practice for this review?

1. Use an external service provider.

2. Conduct a self-assessment with independent validation.

3. Arrange for a review by qualified employees outside of the IAA.

4. Arrange for reciprocal peer review with another CAE.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 4

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 48

Which of the following would most likely cause an internal auditor to consider adding fraud work steps to the audit program?

Options:

A.

Improper segregation of duties.

B.

Incentives and bonus programs.

C.

An employee's reported concerns.

D.

Lack of an ethics policy.

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Questions 49

The internal audit activity (IAA) wants to measure its performance related to the quality of audit recommendations. Which of the following client survey questions would best help the IAA meet this objective?

Options:

A.

Were audit findings relevant and useful to management?

B.

Does the audit report format present issues clearly and concisely?

C.

Does the IAA work with a high degree of professionalism and objectivity?

D.

Were the findings reported in a timely manner?

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Questions 50

According to IIA guidance, which of the following individuals should receive the final audit report on a compliance engagement for the organization's cash disbursements process?

Options:

A.

The accounts payable supervisor, accounts payable manager, and controller.

B.

The accounts payable manager, purchasing manager, and receiving manager.

C.

The accounts payable supervisor, controller, and treasurer.

D.

The accounts payable manager, chief financial officer, and audit committee.

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Questions 51

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is least likely to be a key financial control in an organization's accounts payable process?

Options:

A.

Require the approval of additions and changes to the vendor master listing, where the inherent risk of false vendors is high.

B.

Monitor amounts paid each period and compare them to the budget to identify potential issues.

C.

Compare employee addresses to vendor addresses to identify potential employee fraud.

D.

Monitor customer quality complaints compared to the prior period to identify vendor issues.

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Questions 52

A code of business conduct should include which of the following to increase its deterrent effect?

1. Appropriate descriptions of penalties for misconduct.

2. A notification that code of conduct violations may lead to criminal prosecution.

3. A description of violations that injure the interests of the employer.

4. A list of employees covered by the code of conduct.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 53

An employee in the sales department completes a purchase requisition and forwards it to the purchaser. The purchaser places competitive bids and orders the requested items using approved purchase orders. When the employee receives the ordered items, she forwards the packing slips to the accounts payable department. The invoice for the ordered items is sent directly to the sales department, and an administrative assistant in the sales department forwards the invoices to the accounts payable department for payment. Which of the following audit steps best addresses the risk of fraud in the cash receipts process?

Options:

A.

Verify that approvals of purchasing documents comply with the authority matrix.

B.

Observe whether the purchase orders are sequentially numbered.

C.

Examine whether the sales department supervisor approves invoices for payment.

D.

Determine whether the accounts payable department reconciles all purchasing documents prior to payment.

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Questions 54

Which of the following is an effective approach for internal auditors to take to improve collaboration with audit clients during an engagement?

1. Obtain control concerns from the client before the audit begins so the internal auditor can tailor the scope accordingly.

2. Discuss the engagement plan with the client so the client can understand the reasoning behind the approach.

3. Review test criteria and procedures where the client expresses concerns about the type of tests to be conducted.

4. Provide all observations at the end of the audit to ensure the client is in agreement with the facts before publishing the report.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Questions 55

According to IIA guidance, which of the following are the most important objectives for helping to ensure the appropriate completion of an engagement?

1. Coordinate audit team members to ensure the efficient execution of all engagement procedures.

2. Confirm engagement workpapers properly support the observations, recommendations, and conclusions.

3. Provide structured learning opportunities for engagement auditors when possible.

4. Ensure engagement objectives are reviewed for satisfactory achievement and are documented properly.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 56

An internal audit charter should do which of the following?

Options:

A.

Outline the schedule of future audits.

B.

Define the scope of internal audit activities.

C.

Establish the size of the internal audit activity.

D.

Communicate the internal audit activity's goals.

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Questions 57

According to COSO, which of the following is not considered one of the components of an organization's internal environment?

Options:

A.

Authority and responsibility to resolve issues.

B.

Framework to plan, execute and monitor activities.

C.

Integrated responses to multiple risks.

D.

Knowledge and skills needed to perform activities.

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Questions 58

Non-statistical sampling does not require which of the following?

Options:

A.

The sample to be representative of the population.

B.

The sample to be selected haphazardly.

C.

A smaller sample size than if selected using statistical sampling.

D.

Projecting the results to the population.

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Questions 59

Which of the following types of fraud includes embezzlement?

Options:

A.

Fraudulent statements.

B.

Bribery.

C.

Misappropriation of assets.

D.

Corruption.

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Questions 60

Which of the following statements accurately describes the responsibility of the internal audit activity regarding IT governance?

1. The internal audit activity does not have any responsibility because IT governance is the responsibility of the board and senior management of the organization.

2. The internal audit activity must assess whether the IT governance of the organization supports the organization's strategies and objectives.

3. The internal audit activity may assess whether the IT governance of the organization supports the organization's strategies and objectives.

4. The internal audit activity may accept requests from management to perform advisory services regarding how the IT governance of the organization supports the organization's strategies and objectives.

Options:

A.

1 only.

B.

4 only.

C.

2 and 4.

D.

3 and 4.

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Questions 61

Which of the following factors would reduce dissatisfaction for a management trainee but would not particularly motivate the trainee?

Options:

A.

A sense of achievement.

B.

Promotion.

C.

Recognition.

D.

An incremental increase in salary.

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Questions 62

Which of the following statements is true with regard to information protection?

Options:

A.

All personal information, by definition is considered to be sensitive, requiring specialized controls.

B.

Information is not considered personal if it can only be linked to or used to identify an individual indirectly.

C.

Individuals who provide personal information to organizations share in the risk of inappropriate disclosure.

D.

Good protection controls remove any restrictions on the quantity of personal information that can be collected

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Questions 63

Organizations use matrix management to accomplish which of the following?

Options:

A.

To improve the chain of command.

B.

To strengthen corporate headquarters.

C.

To focus better on a single market.

D.

To increase lateral communication.

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Questions 64

Within an enterprise, IT governance relates to the:

1. Alignment between the enterprise's IT long term plan and the organization's objectives.

2. Organizational structures of the company that are designed to ensure that IT supports the organization's strategies and objectives.

3. Operational plans established to support the IT strategies and objectives.

4. Role of the company's leadership in ensuring IT supports the organization's strategies and objectives.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

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Questions 65

In which of the following scenarios would transfer pricing be used?

Options:

A.

Company A owns Company B; Company B sells goods to Company A.

B.

Company A does not own Company B. Company A charges Company B a fee to sell Company B's goods without taking ownership of the goods.

C.

Company A owns both Company B and Company C; all three companies sell goods to the public.

D.

Company A moves goods internally from one location to another.

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Questions 66

Which of the following is true regarding the COSO enterprise risk management framework?

Options:

A.

The framework categorizes an organization's objectives to distinct, non overlapping objectives.

B.

Control environment is one of the framework's eight components.

C.

The framework facilitates effective risk management, even if objectives have not been established.

D.

The framework integrates with, but is not dependent upon, the corresponding internal control framework.

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Questions 67

Under a value-added taxing system:

Options:

A.

Businesses must pay a tax only if they make a profit.

B.

The consumer ultimately bears the cost of the tax through higher prices.

C.

Consumer savings are discouraged.

D.

The amount of value added is the difference between an organization's sales and its cost of goods sold.

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Questions 68

Multinational organizations generally spend more time and effort to identify and evaluate:

Options:

A.

Internal strengths and weaknesses.

B.

Break-even points.

C.

External trends and events.

D.

Internal risk factors.

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Questions 69

A large hospital has an existing contract with a vendor in another country to provide software support and maintenance of the hospital's patient records information system. From the hospital management's perspective, which of the following controls would be most effective to address privacy risks related to this outsourcing arrangement^

Options:

A.

Conduct periodic reviews of the privacy policy to ensure that the existing policy meets current legislation requirements in both regions.

B.

Include a "right to audit" clause in the contract and impose detailed security obligations on the outsourced vendor

C.

Implement mandatory privacy training for management to help with identifying privacy risks when outsourcing services

D.

Develop an incident monitoring and response plan to track breaches from internal and external sources

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Questions 70

Which of the following price adjustment strategies encourages prompt payment?

Options:

A.

Cash discounts.

B.

Quantity discounts.

C.

Functional discounts.

D.

Seasonal discounts.

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Questions 71

Which of the following statements is correct regarding risk analysis?

Options:

A.

The extent to which management judgments are required in an area could serve as a risk factor in assisting the auditor in making a comparative risk analysis.

B.

The highest risk assessment should always be assigned to the area with the largest potential loss.

C.

The highest risk assessment should always be assigned to the area with the highest probability of occurrence.

D.

Risk analysis must be reduced to quantitative terms in order to provide meaningful comparisons across an organization.

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Questions 72

A retail organization is considering acquiring a composite textile company. The retailer's due diligence team determined the value of the textile company to be $50 million. The financial experts forecasted net present value of future cash flows to be $60 million. Experts at the textile company determined their company's market value to be $55 million if purchased by another entity. However, the textile company could earn more than $70 million from the retail organization due to synergies. Therefore, the textile company is motivated to make the negotiation successful. Which of the following approaches is most likely to result in a successful negotiation?

Options:

A.

Develop a bargaining zone that lies between $50 million and $70 million and create sets of outcomes between $50 million and $70 million.

B.

Adopt an added-value negotiating strategy, develop a bargaining zone between $50 million and $70 million, and create sets of outcomes between $50 million and $70 million.

C.

Involve a mediator as a neutral party who can work with the textile company's management to determine a bargaining zone.

D.

Develop a bargaining zone that lies between $55 million and $60 million and create sets of outcomes between $55 million and $60 million.

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Questions 73

When applied to international economics, the theory of comparative advantage proposes that total worldwide output will be greatest when:

Options:

A.

Each nation's total imports approximately equal its total exports.

B.

Each good is produced by the nation that has the lowest opportunity cost for that good.

C.

Goods that contribute to a nation's balance-of-payments deficit are no longer imported.

D.

International trade is unrestricted and tariffs are not imposed.

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Questions 74

Which of the following phases of a business cycle are marked by an underuse of resources?

1. The trough.

2. The peak.

3. The recovery.

4. The recession.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

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Questions 75

Which of the following are the most appropriate measures for evaluating the change in an organization's liquidity position?

Options:

A.

Times interest earned, return on assets, and inventory turnover.

B.

Accounts receivable turnover, inventory turnover in days, and the current ratio.

C.

Accounts receivable turnover, return on assets, and the current ratio.

D.

Inventory turnover in days, the current ratio, and return on equity.

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Questions 76

Which of the following conditions could lead an organization to enter into a new business through internal development rather than through acquisition?

Options:

A.

It is expected that there will be slow retaliation from incumbents.

B.

The acquiring organization has information that the selling organization is weak.

C.

The number of bidders to acquire the organization for sale is low.

D.

The condition of the economy is poor.

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Questions 77

Which of the following application controls checks the integrity of data entered into a business application?

Options:

A.

Input controls.

B.

Output controls

C.

Processing controls

D.

Integrity controls

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Questions 78

When auditing an application change control process, which of the following procedures should be included in the scope of the audit?

1. Ensure system change requests are formally initiated, documented, and approved.

2. Ensure processes are in place to prevent emergency changes from taking place.

3. Ensure changes are adequately tested before being placed into the production environment.

4. Evaluate whether the procedures for program change management are adequate.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4 only

D.

1, 3, and 4 only

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Questions 79

A key advantage of developing a computer application by using the prototyping approach is that it:

Options:

A.

Does not require testing for user acceptance.

B.

Allows applications to be portable across multiple system platforms.

C.

Is less expensive since it is self-documenting.

D.

Better involves users in the design process.

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Questions 80

The economic order quantity can be calculated using the following formula:

IIA-ACCA Question 80

Which of the following describes how the optimal order size will change if the annual demand increases by 36 percent?

Options:

A.

Decrease by about 17 percent.

B.

Decrease by about 7 percent.

C.

Increase by about 7 percent.

D.

Increase by about 17 percent.

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Questions 81

Which of the following is a key responsibility of a database administrator?

Options:

A.

Troubleshoot end user problems

B.

Provide production support.

C.

Provide physical security of databases

D.

Maintain database integrity

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Questions 82

International marketing activities often begin with:

Options:

A.

Standardization.

B.

Global marketing.

C.

Limited exporting.

D.

Domestic marketing.

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Questions 83

The board has requested that the internal audit activity be involved in all phases of the organization's outsourcing of its network management. During which of the following stages is the internal auditor most likely to verify that the organization's right-to-audit clause is drafted effectively?

Options:

A.

Implementation and transition phase.

B.

Monitoring and reporting phase

C.

Decision-making and business-case phase.

D.

Tendering and contracting phase.

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Questions 84

According to the ISO 14001 standard, which of the following is not included in the requirements for a quality management system?

Options:

A.

Key processes across the entity which impact quality must be identified and included.

B.

The quality management system must be documented in the articles of incorporation, quality manual, procedures, work instructions, and records.

C.

Management must review the quality policy, analyze data about quality management system performance, and assess opportunities for improvement and the need for change.

D.

The entity must have processes for inspections, testing, measurement, analysis, and improvement.

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Questions 85

Which of the following options correctly defines a transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP)?

Options:

A.

System software that acts as an interface between a user and a computer.

B.

A standardized set of guidelines that facilitates communication between computers on different networks.

C.

System software that translates hypertext markup language to allow users to view a remote webpage.

D.

A network of servers used to control a variety of mission-critical operations.

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Questions 86

When granting third parties temporary access to an entity's computer systems, which of the following is the most effective control?

Options:

A.

Access is approved by the supervising manager.

B.

User accounts specify expiration dates and are based on services provided.

C.

Administrator access is provided for a limited period.

D.

User accounts are deleted when the work is completed.

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Questions 87

Which of the following control features consists of a set of authorization codes that distinguishes among actions such as reading, adding, and deleting records?

Options:

A.

Internally encrypted passwords

B.

System access privileges.

C.

Logon passwords

D.

Protocol controls.

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Questions 88

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is a primary component of a network security strategy?

Options:

A.

Application input controls

B.

Firewall controls.

C.

Transmission encryption controls

D.

Change management controls

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Questions 89

Which of the following is always true regarding the use of encryption algorithms based on public key infrastructure (PKI)?

Options:

A.

PKI uses an independent administrator to manage the public key.

B.

The public key is authenticated against reliable third-party identification.

C.

PKI's public accessibility allows it to be used readily for e-commerce.

D.

The private key uniquely authenticates each party to a transaction.

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Questions 90

Which of the following strategies would most likely prevent an organization from adjusting to evolving industry market conditions?

Options:

A.

Specializing in proven manufacturing techniques that have made the organization profitable in the past.

B.

Substituting its own production technology with advanced techniques used by its competitors.

C.

Forgoing profits over a period of time to gain market share from its competitors.

D.

Using the same branding to sell its products through new sales channels to target new markets.

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Exam Code: IIA-ACCA
Exam Name: ACCA CIA Challenge Exam
Last Update: Nov 18, 2024
Questions: 604

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