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GRCP GRC Professional Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A self-legitimizing person, group, or other entity with a direct or indirect invested interest in an organization’s actions because of the perceived or actual impact is referred to as?

Options:

A.

Shareholder

B.

Stakeholder

C.

Executive Team

D.

Customer

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Questions 5

What are the four dimensions of Total Performance that should be considered across all components and elements of the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

Vision, Mission, Strategy, and Tactics

B.

Input, Process, Output, and Feedback

C.

Planning, Execution, Monitoring, and Control

D.

Effectiveness, Efficiency, Responsiveness, and Resilience

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Questions 6

What is the term used to describe the positive, favorable effect of uncertainty on objectives?

Options:

A.

Obstacle

B.

Enhancement

C.

Profit

D.

Reward

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Questions 7

What type of activities are typically included in post-assessments?

Options:

A.

Financial audits and budget reviews.

B.

Employee performance evaluations and appraisals.

C.

Market research and customer surveys.

D.

Lessons learned, root-cause analysis, after-action reviews, and other evaluative activities.

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Questions 8

What is the advantage of using technology-based inquiry for discovering events?

Options:

A.

This inquiry prevents the need for employee surveys.

B.

This inquiry eliminates the need to analyze information.

C.

This inquiry focuses on unfavorable events.

D.

This inquiry often provides information sooner than other methods.

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Questions 9

When should anonymity be afforded to stakeholders who raise issues through notification pathways?

Options:

A.

Anonymity should never be afforded, as it encourages false reporting.

B.

Anonymity should be afforded where legally permitted or required.

C.

Anonymity should only be afforded to stakeholders who are not employees of the organization.

D.

Anonymity should be afforded only when the issue raised is of minor importance.

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Questions 10

Which "most important stakeholder" judges whether an organization is producing, protecting, or destroying value?

Options:

A.

Customer

B.

Risk Manager

C.

Board

D.

Ethics Department

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Questions 11

How can organizations encourage the occurrence of positive events while preventing negative ones?

Options:

A.

Through implementing proactive actions and controls

B.

Through employee training and follow-up

C.

Through using financial actions and controls

D.

Through relying on responsive actions and controls

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Questions 12

What does "Effectiveness" refer to when assessing Total Performance in the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

The ability of a program to ensure compliance with laws and regulations and avoid issues or incidents of noncompliance

B.

The speed at which a program is implemented and executed with a good design that can be implemented in every department

C.

The soundness and logical design of a program, its alignment with best practices, coverage of topical areas, and impact on intended business objectives

D.

The cost savings achieved by implementing a GRC program

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Questions 13

In the context of GRC, what is the importance of aligning objectives throughout the organization?

Options:

A.

It ensures that superior-level objectives cascade to subordinate units and that subordinate units contribute to the most important objectives and priorities of the organization.

B.

It enables the governing authority to only focus on the highest-level objectives that are tied to financial outcomes.

C.

It frees the organization to focus solely on short-term financial performance.

D.

It eliminates the need for excessive communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization.

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Questions 14

What criteria should objectives meet to be considered effective?

Options:

A.

Objectives should be based only on financial metrics for each unit or department

B.

Objectives should meet the SMART criteria (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Timebound)

C.

Objectives should only have one timescale, e.g., quarterly, annually, 5 years

D.

Objectives should be sought by a majority of the stakeholder categories for the organization

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Questions 15

What is the significance of assigning a single owner to each objective?

Options:

A.

Assigning a single owner to each objective ensures clear accountability and authority to ensure successful achievement

B.

Assigning a single owner to each objective ensures that the owner receives recognition and rewards for achieving the objective

C.

Assigning a single owner to each objective allows the owner to delegate tasks to other employees to achieve the objective

D.

Assigning a single owner to each objective allows the owner to make unilateral decisions without consulting other stakeholders, which is necessary to keep plans for achieving the objective on track

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Questions 16

How does applying a consistent process for improvement benefit the organization?

Options:

A.

It benefits the internal audit department

B.

It reduces the need for employee training

C.

It helps prioritize and execute across the organization

D.

It is not necessary and has no benefits

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Questions 17

What is the significance of developing relationships with key individuals and champions within stakeholder groups?

Options:

A.

To ensure that stakeholders receive special privileges and benefits

B.

To liaison with people and champions who hold actual power and influence in each stakeholder group

C.

To create a network of stakeholders who can promote the organization’s brand

D.

To gather intelligence on the activities and plans of competing organizations who have some of the same stakeholders

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Questions 18

Which of the following best describes the overall process of analyzing risk culture in an organization?

Options:

A.

Determining the level of risk-taking that each employee is comfortable with.

B.

Assessing the organization's ability to attract and retain top talent that is willing to take risks to achieve objectives.

C.

Evaluating the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance levels for each type of risk.

D.

Analyzing the climate and mindsets about how the workforce perceives risk, its impact on work, and its integration with decision-making.

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Questions 19

How do strategic goals differ from other objectives within an organization?

Options:

A.

Strategic goals are short-term objectives focused on the organization’s daily operations and activities

B.

Strategic goals are specific targets related to the organization’s sales and marketing efforts

C.

Strategic goals are long-term objectives typically set at higher levels of the organization and serve as guideposts for long-term strategic planning

D.

Strategic goals are quantitative measures of the organization’s financial performance and profitability

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Questions 20

What is the role of indicators in measuring progress toward objectives?

Options:

A.

Indicators are used to determine if the objectives must be changed in response to changes in the external or internal context.

B.

Indicators measure quantitative or qualitative progress toward an objective.

C.

Indicators are used to evaluate the appropriateness of the organization’s selection of objectives.

D.

Indicators are used to calculate the return on investment for various projects and initiatives.

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Questions 21

Who has ultimate accountability (plenary accountability) for the governance, management, and assurance of performance, risk, and compliance in the Lines of Accountability Model?

Options:

A.

The Fifth Line, or the Governing Authority (Board).

B.

The Second Line, or the individuals and teams that establish performance, risk, and compliance programs.

C.

The First Line, or the individuals and teams involved in operational activities.

D.

The Third Line, or the individuals and teams that provide assurance.

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Questions 22

What types of actions and controls are included in the PERFORM component of the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

Internal, external, and hybrid actions and controls.

B.

Mandatory, voluntary, and optional actions and controls.

C.

Proactive, detective, and responsive actions and controls.

D.

Reactive, preventive, and corrective actions and controls.

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Questions 23

In the context of the GRC Capability Model, what is culture defined as?

Options:

A.

A formal structure that is established by the leadership of an organization to ensure compliance with requirements, whether they are mandatory or voluntary obligations of the organization.

B.

An emergent property of a group of people caused by the interaction of individual beliefs, values, mindsets, and behaviors, and demonstrated by observable norms and articulated opinions.

C.

A set of written rules and guidelines that dictate the behavior of individuals within an organization.

D.

A collection of artifacts, symbols, and rituals that represent the history of an organization.

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Questions 24

What is the primary responsibility of the Fourth Line in the Lines of Accountability Model?

Options:

A.

The Fourth Line, which is the Procurement Department, is responsible for managing vendor relationships and procurement processes.

B.

The Fourth Line, which is the HR department, is responsible for providing training and development opportunities to employees.

C.

The Fourth Line, which is the Compliance Department, is responsible for establishing actions and controls to address regulatory and policy requirements.

D.

The Fourth Line, which is the Executive Team, is accountable and responsible for organization-wide performance, risk, and compliance.

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Questions 25

What are some considerations to keep in mind when attempting to influence an organization’s culture?

Options:

A.

Culture change requires long-term commitment, consistent modeling in both words and deeds, and reinforcement by leaders and the workforce.

B.

Culture change is not necessary as long as the organization is meeting its financial targets.

C.

Culture change can be achieved quickly through the implementation of new policies and procedures if there is adequate training provided.

D.

Culture change is solely dependent on the decisions made by the executive leadership team and how they model desired behavior.

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Questions 26

What is the purpose of assigning accountability for external factors within an organization?

Options:

A.

To eliminate the need for hiring consultants or law firms to monitor external factors

B.

To ensure that individuals with authority and resources are responsible for successfully analyzing, influencing, and sensing external factors that may impact the organization

C.

To reduce the workload of the organization's top management and having staff people track external factors relevant to their own roles

D.

To know who will be using technology to track external events so proper access can be assigned

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Questions 27

What is the primary purpose of the ALIGN component in the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

To coordinate the monitoring and evaluation of the organization's governance, risk, and compliance activities.

B.

To define the direction and objectives of an organization and design an integrated plan to address opportunities, obstacles, and obligations.

C.

To establish communication channels and provide education to stakeholders about how the organization aligns its business operations to their needs.

D.

To review and improve the organization’s policies and controls and ensure they are aligned to the operations of the business.

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Questions 28

What is a potential limitation of using qualitative analysis techniques in the context of risk, reward, and compliance?

Options:

A.

Qualitative analysis techniques always lead to incorrect conclusions about risk, reward, and compliance.

B.

Qualitative analysis techniques are not applicable to the analysis of risk and reward.

C.

Qualitative analysis techniques rely on descriptive data and subjective judgments, which may result in less precise estimations compared to quantitative analysis.

D.

Qualitative analysis techniques are only useful for analyzing compliance-related risks.

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Questions 29

Why is it important to ensure that stakeholders raise issues directly with the organization rather than using external pathways?

Options:

A.

To afford more flexibility in corrective action and allow the organization to address concerns promptly

B.

To prevent stakeholders from getting a whistleblower reward

C.

To ensure that stakeholders' concerns are hidden from the media

D.

To provide time to fix the identified issue and not have to report it to any stakeholders

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Questions 30

What is the purpose of implementing policies within an organization?

Options:

A.

To set clear expectations of conduct for key internal stakeholders and the extended enterprise.

B.

To meet regulatory requirements and establish compliance.

C.

To reduce the need for defined procedures and guidelines within the organization.

D.

To have individual regulation-specific policies instead of a generic Code of Conduct.

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Questions 31

How are opportunities, obstacles, and obligations prioritized for further analysis?

Options:

A.

Based on identification criteria and the priority of associated objectives

B.

Based on the business units they relate to and how important those units are to the achievement of objectives

C.

Based on the items identified as top priorities at the enterprise level taking higher priority than any unit-based items

D.

Based on the preferences of the executive management team

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Questions 32

What are some examples of legal and regulatory factors that may influence an organization's external context?

Options:

A.

Market research, customer feedback, and competitive analysis

B.

How the organization's legal department and outside legal counsel coordinate activities

C.

Laws, rules, regulations, litigation, and judicial or administrative opinions

D.

Enforcement actions and litigation against the company

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Questions 33

Why is it important to avoid "perverse incentives" in an incentive program?

Options:

A.

They encourage adverse conduct

B.

They are not tax-deductible

C.

They decrease employee satisfaction

D.

They violate anti-harassment laws

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Questions 34

What are the key measurement criteria for the REVIEW component?

Options:

A.

Quality, Safety, Compliance, and Sustainability.

B.

Effective, Efficient, Agile, and Resilient.

C.

Leadership, Collaboration, Innovation, and Diversity.

D.

Revenue, Profit, Market Share, and Growth.

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Questions 35

What is the term used to describe the level of risk in the absence of actions and controls?

Options:

A.

Uncontrolled Risk

B.

Inherent Risk

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Residual Risk

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Questions 36

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to constrain activities and setdirection?

Options:

A.

Audit & Assurance

B.

Governance & Oversight

C.

Risk & Decisions

D.

Compliance & Ethics

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Questions 37

Why is it important to establish decision-making criteria in the alignment process?

Options:

A.

To calculate the return on investment (ROI) of alignment activities

B.

To ensure that the organization stays on track and achieves its objectives

C.

To comply with industry regulations and standards

D.

To evaluate the performance of individual employees and teams

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Questions 38

What is the significance of evaluating costs and benefits during design?

Options:

A.

It enables the organization to decide it would rather bear the risk and cost of a compliance enforcement action than spend more money to ensure compliance.

B.

It determines the number of employees to commit to any aspect of the design.

C.

It provides insights into the preferences and behaviors of customers and clients.

D.

It ensures that the costs do not outweigh the benefits of a design decision.

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Questions 39

In the context of Total Performance, what considerations are made for resilience in the assessment of an education program?

Options:

A.

The number of employees who have completed advanced training.

B.

The frequency of updates to the education program's curriculum.

C.

The availability of online and offline training materials.

D.

Contingency plans for system failure, slack in timelines, and availability of backup staff.

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Questions 40

What is the role of the mission statement in guiding decision-making and priority-setting within an organization?

Options:

A.

It outlines the organization’s budget and financial goals which must be considered in every type of decision

B.

It describes the organization’s product development plans that must be considered when making decisions and setting priorities

C.

It serves as a clear and consistent statement of the organization’s overall purpose and direction, guiding decision-making and priority-setting

D.

It defines the roles and responsibilities of each department

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Questions 41

What is the role of compliance management systems and key compliance indicators (KCIs) in an organization?

Options:

A.

To deliver compliance training to employees

B.

To measure the degree to which obligations and requirements are addressed

C.

To ensure adherence to ethical standards and codes of conduct

D.

To monitor and evaluate the effectiveness of internal controls and procedures

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Questions 42

Which are some considerations to keep in mind when establishing a communication framework?

Options:

A.

Reducing the frequency of communication to avoid information overload.

B.

Selecting the appropriate sender, recipient, intention, message, cadence, and channel.

C.

Ensuring external communications are always formal while most internal communication can be more informal.

D.

Using only one communication channel for all types of messages so that sending and receipt can be tracked.

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Questions 43

What is the importance of gaining subordinate buy-in when setting the direction for an organization?

Options:

A.

To determine the organization’s expansion and growth plans without internal conflict

B.

To establish the organization’s brand identity and image without conflict

C.

To ensure that the organization has sufficient staff to take on defined tasks

D.

To help subordinate units understand and define ways to contribute to the organization’s success, reducing the risk of strategic misalignment and engagement decay

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Questions 44

Why is it important to design specific inquiry routines to detect unfavorable events?

Options:

A.

To prioritize the discovery of favorable events.

B.

To avoid the need for technology-based inquiry methods.

C.

To detect them as soon as possible.

D.

To prevent the need for observations and conversations.

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Questions 45

What are the two measures used to estimate the effect of uncertainty on objectives?

Options:

A.

Accuracy and precision

B.

Likelihood and impact

C.

Probability and consequence

D.

Certainty and effect

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Questions 46

What considerations should be taken into account when protecting information associated with notifications?

Options:

A.

Allowing unrestricted access to notification and follow-up information by the notifier so that they can see the organization is responding appropriately

B.

Knowing that any legal or regulatory requirements related to data privacy do not apply to hotline reports

C.

Ensuring pathways comply with mandatory requirements in the locale where the notification originates and the organization operates

D.

Knowing that confidentiality and anonymity rights are the same thing

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Questions 47

What is the term used to describe a cause that has the potential to eventually result in benefit?

Options:

A.

Venture

B.

Objective

C.

Prospect

D.

Target outcome

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Questions 48

Why is assurance never considered absolute?

Options:

A.

Because it is only applicable to certain industries and sectors

B.

Because the subject matter, assurance providers, information producers, and information consumers are all fallible

C.

Because it does not provide a written guarantee of the accuracy and reliability of the subject matter

D.

Because it is solely based on the opinions and judgments of the assurance provider

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Questions 49

Which design option is characterized by ceasing all activity or terminating sources that give rise to the opportunity, obstacle, or obligation?

Options:

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Control

D.

Avoid

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Questions 50

What is the significance of a vision statement in inspiring and motivating employees, stakeholders, and customers?

Options:

A.

It specifies the organization's views on ethical issues facing it.

B.

It describes what the organization aspires to be and why it matters, serving as a guidepost for long-term strategic planning and inspiring and motivating employees, stakeholders, and customers.

C.

It details the organization's sales targets and revenue projections to motivate employees to work hard and meet those goals.

D.

It outlines the organization's succession planning and leadership development.

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Questions 51

Which of the following is most often responsible for balancing the competing needs of stakeholders and guiding, constraining, and conscribing the organization to achieve objectives reliably, address uncertainty, and act with integrity to meet these needs?

Options:

A.

A risk manager

B.

A general counsel

C.

A compliance unit

D.

A governing board

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Questions 52

In the context of the Maturity Model, what characterizes practices at Level I?

Options:

A.

Practices are improvised, ad hoc, and often chaotic.

B.

Practices are formally documented and consistently managed.

C.

Practices are measured and managed with data-driven evidence.

D.

Practices are consistently improved over time.

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Questions 53

What does it mean for an organization to "sense" its external context?

Options:

A.

To make sense of the changes that are tracked in the external context to determine impact on the organization

B.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s monitoring of the external environment

C.

To continually watch for and make sense of changes in the external context that may have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization and to notify appropriate personnel and systems

D.

To use qualitative methods of monitoring the organization’s external context based on experience and intuition

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Questions 54

What is the primary objective of Lean as a technique for improvement?

Options:

A.

To maximize profits and shareholder value

B.

To improve communication and collaboration

C.

To eliminate waste and increase efficiency

D.

To enhance customer satisfaction and loyalty

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Questions 55

How does Benchmarking contribute to the improvement of a capability?

Options:

A.

By identifying potential legal and regulatory issues.

B.

By comparing the capability's performance to industry standards or best practices.

C.

By assessing the impact of organizational culture.

D.

By evaluating the effectiveness of risk management campaigns.

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Questions 56

Why is it important for an organization to balance the needs of diverse stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To prevent stakeholders from forming alliances against the organization.

B.

To ensure that all stakeholders receive equal consideration.

C.

To comply with industry regulations regarding stakeholder management.

D.

To address the requests, wants, or expectations of stakeholders and inform the mission, vision, and objectives of the organization.

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Questions 57

What is the importance of mapping objectives to one another within an organization?

Options:

A.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units shows how they impact one another and how resources may be best allocated

B.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for determining the compensation and bonuses of employees based on their contributions to achieving objectives

C.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for creating a visual representation of the organization’s hierarchy and reporting structure

D.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for identifying redundant objectives and eliminating them from the organization’s strategic plan

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Questions 58

What is the primary purpose of interacting with stakeholders in an organization?

Options:

A.

To understand expectations, requirements, and perspectives that impact the organization

B.

To gather feedback for marketing campaigns

C.

To negotiate contracts and agreements with stakeholders

D.

To ensure stakeholders invest in the organization

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Questions 59

What is the purpose of proactively developing communication channels within an organization?

Options:

A.

To ensure that all communication is delivered in written form only.

B.

To ensure that the channels are available before they are needed.

C.

To formalize the process so that employees know that anything they communicate will be kept in records.

D.

To limit communication to a single channel for simplicity and cost savings.

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Questions 60

What are some examples of non-economic incentives that can be used to encourage favorable conduct?

Options:

A.

Appreciation, status, professional development

B.

Stock options, salary increases, bonuses, and profit-sharing

C.

Gift baskets, extra vacation time, and employee competitions

D.

Health insurance, retirement plans, paid time off, and sick leave

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Questions 61

What are some systems-based methods for conducting inquiries?

Options:

A.

Coordinating survey efforts throughout the organization

B.

Avoiding any connection between inquiry responses and performance appraisals

C.

Continuous control monitoring, log management, application performance monitoring, management dashboards

D.

Observations, meetings, focus groups, and individual conversations

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Questions 62

Why is it important to prioritize, substantiate, validate, and route notifications within an organization?

Options:

A.

To prevent employees from receiving any notifications that may cause stress unnecessarily

B.

To ensure that notifications are handled by the right organizational units or roles based on topic, type, and severity

C.

To ensure that notifications are only sent to the CEO and board of directors, or to the General Counsel if a legal issue is raised

D.

To provide the right to respond before any follow-up actions or investigations are started

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Questions 63

What is the primary goal of defining an education plan?

Options:

A.

To evaluate the current skill level of the workforce.

B.

To develop a plan that is tailored to the specific needs of each audience.

C.

To create a helpline for anonymous reporting and asking questions.

D.

To implement Bloom’s Taxonomy in the education program.

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Exam Code: GRCP
Exam Name: GRC Professional Certification Exam
Last Update: Mar 29, 2025
Questions: 212

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