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FPGEE Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Options:

A.

Mexiletine

B.

Aminodarone

C.

Quinidine

D.

Procainamide

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Questions 5

Mechanism of action of chlorthalidone is:

Options:

A.

Mitotic spindle poison

B.

Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane resulting in formation of pores.

C.

Unknown

D.

Induces "freezing" of initiation complex

E.

Inhibits Na-Cl transporter

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Questions 6

For highly polar drugs (e.g. mannitol) what primarily determines elimination rate?

Options:

A.

Excretion rate

B.

Metabolism rate

C.

Absorption rate

D.

Distribution rate

E.

All of the above

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Questions 7

Which of the following is the main carbohydrate of body blood?

Options:

A.

Sorbitol

B.

Mannitol

C.

Frutase

D.

Glucase

E.

Lactase

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Questions 8

Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from reactions of:

Options:

A.

glutathione conjugates.

B.

glucuronide conjugates.

C.

glycine conjugates.

D.

glutamate conjugates.

E.

sulfate conjugates.

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Questions 9

In an enzymatic reaction, addition of competitive inhibitor leads to:

Options:

A.

Increase the rate of reaction

B.

Decrease the rate of reaction

C.

Same rate of reaction

D.

Decrease rate and increase substrate concentration

E.

Decrease both rate and substrate concentration

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Questions 10

Which of the following is considered normal sodium serum in human body?

Options:

A.

35 to 47 mEq/L

B.

147 to 150 mEq/L

C.

135 to 147mEq/L

D.

75 to 135 mEq/L

E.

125 to 145 mEq/L

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Questions 11

Which of the following is an antiviral drug used in the treatment of AIDS-HIV?

I- Acyclovir

II- Zidovudine

III- Stavudine

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 12

The conversion of β-carotene to vitamin A is carried out in:

Options:

A.

Pancreas

B.

Spleen

C.

Liver

D.

Adrenal cortex

E.

Nefrons

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Questions 13

Keratin is an example of:

Options:

A.

Protein

B.

Peptin

C.

Scleroprotein

D.

Albuminoid

E.

C and D are correct

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Questions 14

Which of the following vitamins has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity based on its pteridine ring?

Options:

A.

Thiamine

B.

Vitamin D

C.

Vitamin K

D.

Folic acid

E.

Pyridoxine

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Questions 15

Which of the following compounds are considered the building blocks of nucleic acids?

Options:

A.

Nucleotides

B.

Nucleosides

C.

Monosaccharides

D.

Purines

E.

Amino acids

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Questions 16

Which of the following is considered as the best treatment of asthma?

Options:

A.

β2-agonists

B.

β-Blockers

C.

α-agonists

D.

Anticholinergic drugs

E.

Cholinergic drugs

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Questions 17

Which of the following factors would be important in determining the concentration of drug that would be reached in the cerebrospinal fluid for treatment of meningitis?

I Oil/water partition coefficient

II Binding to plasma protein

III pKa of the drug

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 18

The mechanism of antipsychotic effect of phenothiazines is thought to be due to:

Options:

A.

improvement of cholinergic transmission

B.

blockade of catecholamine re-uptake

C.

blockade of dopamine receptors

D.

blockade of enkephalinergic neurons

E.

prolactin release

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Questions 19

Sulfinpyrazone is used as a(n):

Options:

A.

analgesic agent

B.

antipyretic agent

C.

anti-inflammatory agent

D.

agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption of uric acid

E.

uricosuric agent

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Questions 20

Mechanism of action of enalapril is:

Options:

A.

serotonin reuptake inhibitor

B.

Inhibits bone resorption

C.

beta-2 agonist

D.

Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme

E.

Induces "freezing" of initiation complex

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Questions 21

Which of the following enzymes could directly act on codeine?

Options:

A.

Glucuronyl transferase

B.

Sulfotransferase

C.

Glutathione transferase

D.

A & B

E.

All of the above

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Questions 22

Class of demeclocycline is:

Options:

A.

Analgesics

B.

Inotropic agents

C.

Penicillins

D.

Antithyroid agents

E.

Aquaretics

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Questions 23

Route of administration of ofloxacin is:

Options:

A.

Intra-auricular

B.

Sublingual

C.

Oral

D.

IV

E.

Intramuscular

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Questions 24

Which of the following causes the smallest change in solubility?

Options:

A.

Hydroxylation

B.

Glucuronidation

C.

Sulfation

D.

Glutathione conjugation

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Questions 25

Which of the following are similarities between Cytochrome P450 and MAO?

Options:

A.

Both add oxygen from O2 to substrates and also form water

B.

Both carry out direct heteroatom oxidations

C.

Both carry out oxidative deaminations

D.

Both carry out N-dealkylations

E.

All of the above

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Questions 26

Side effect of furosemide is:

Options:

A.

Nausea

B.

Mucositis

C.

Constipation

D.

Hearing impairment

E.

Weight gain

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Questions 27

Cigarette smoke causes an increase in levels of CYP1A isozymes. Theophylline is primarily metabolized by the CYP1A system. What would happen to theophylline clearance for an asthmatic patient in hospital who could not smoke?

Options:

A.

No change

B.

Increase

C.

Decrease

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Questions 28

Mechanism of action of flunisolide is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits DNA gyrase

B.

Inhibits phosphodiesterase

C.

Inhibits phospholipase A2

D.

beta-2 agonist

E.

Competitively inhibits H2 receptors

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Questions 29

Example of compound that is phospholipids include:

Options:

A.

Glycogen

B.

Leucine

C.

Lecithin

D.

Hyaluronic acid

E.

Phenylalanine

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Questions 30

Which of the following is considered the normal potassium serum in human body?

Options:

A.

2.0 to 3.5mEq/L

B.

3.5 to 5.0mEq/L

C.

5.0 to 7.5mEq/L

D.

3.5 to 7.5mEq/L

E.

3.0 to 6.0mEq/L

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Questions 31

The blood volume of the average adult is approximately:

Options:

A.

5 L

B.

10 L

C.

15 L

D.

20 L

E.

25 L

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Questions 32

False statement regarding vitamin D3 metabolism include:

Options:

A.

Vitamin C facilitates absorption of vitamin D3 in the liver

B.

Hydroxylation of D3 is in kidney

C.

Hydroxylation of is D3 in the liver

D.

Parathyroid hormone activate metabolism of vitamin D3 in the kidney

E.

Skin activates synthesis of vitamin D3 by sunlight

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Questions 33

Both isoxazole and oxazole rings are found as substituents in some bacteriostatic sulfanilamides. They are present in these structures specifically because of their:

Options:

A.

Sizes and shapes

B.

Tautomeric activities

C.

Enzymatic activities

D.

Electron-donating effects

E.

Electron-withdrawing effects

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Questions 34

The effectiveness of VANCOMYCIN is seen ONLY in:

Options:

A.

Virus

B.

Gram-negative bacterias

C.

Gram-positive bacterias

D.

Both gram-positive and negative bacterias

E.

Plasmodium

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Questions 35

Common etiologic agents of community-acquired pneumonia include:

I Escherichia coli

II Haemophilus influenzae

III Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 36

All of the following are examples of amino penicillin, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Ampicillin

B.

Cloxacillin

C.

Amoxicillin

D.

Bicampicilin

E.

All are correct

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Questions 37

All of the following are examples of aminoglycosides drugs, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Nystatin

B.

Gentamicin

C.

Amikacin

D.

Streptomycin

E.

Garamycin

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Questions 38

Class of timolol is:

Options:

A.

Antiarrhythmic agents

B.

Antithyroid agents

C.

Anticonvulsants

D.

Beta blockers

E.

Antidepressants

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Questions 39

Side effect of OKT-3 is:

Options:

A.

Myalgia

B.

Restlessness

C.

Cognitive dulling

D.

Dyspnea

E.

Cough

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Questions 40

Class of urokinase is:

Options:

A.

Sedatives

B.

Anti-asthmatic agents

C.

Antimycobacterial

D.

Antidepressants

E.

Thrombolytics

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Questions 41

Subclass of norfloxacin is:

Options:

A.

III

B.

Fluoroquinolones

C.

IC

D.

Bulk-forming laxatives

E.

II

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Questions 42

Mechanism of action of ganciclovir is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits viral uncoating

B.

Inhibits viral DNA polymerase

C.

Inhibits Na-Cl transporter

D.

Inhibits RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

E.

Blocks K channels

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Questions 43

In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over 3 years, a specific serious side effect (i.e. reduction in leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0.5% of the study sample. In patients who receive a newly discovered drug, only 0.45% experience the same side effect. Based on these results, the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at least one patient is:

Options:

A.

15.

B.

20.

C.

150.

D.

200.

E.

2000.

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Questions 44

Erythromycin:

I is effective against gram-positive cocci.

II is a macrolide antibiotic.

III can increase gastrointestinal tract motility.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 45

Correct administration of Penicillamine in the treatment of rheumatois arthritis include:

Options:

A.

With meals

B.

In emptying stomach

C.

With plenty of water

D.

With orange juice

E.

Before bedtime

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Questions 46

Osteoporosis is mainly characterized by:

Options:

A.

Loss of joint movements

B.

Loss of bone mass

C.

Imbalance of uric acid

D.

Hormonal imbalance

E.

All are correct

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Questions 47

An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE. inhibitor for which both renal elimination and metabolism are important in the elimination of the drug and its active metabolites is:

Options:

A.

enalapril

B.

fosinopril

C.

lisinopril

D.

quinapril

E.

ramipril

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Questions 48

The above structures are related to one another as:

Options:

A.

bioisosteres

B.

enantiomers

C.

homologs

D.

rotamers

E.

positional (structural) isomers

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Questions 49

The number of milli-alents of lithium that KJ will receive with each dose is:

Options:

A.

8

B.

16

C.

24

D.

32

E.

48

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Questions 50

Which of the following is an azo dye?

Options:

A.

Hexachlorophene

B.

Nitrofurantoin

C.

Methenamine

D.

Phenazopyridine

E.

Nalidixic acid

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Questions 51

Which of the following statements refers to pyrazinamide?

Options:

A.

Accumulates inside mycobacteria

B.

Effects: vasodilator in CHF patients; vasodilator and inotropic in normal individuals.

C.

Is active in acidic environment, therefore especially useful for killing intracellular mycobacteria

D.

Nephrotoxicity is almost always reversible.

E.

Lupus occurs more commonly in slow acetylators.

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Questions 52

Examples of very narrow spectrum penicillins include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Amoxicillin

B.

Nafcillin

C.

Methicillin

D.

Oxacillin

E.

All are very narrow spectrum penicillins

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Questions 53

Cephalosporin mechanism of action may include:

Options:

A.

Inhibit protein synthesis

B.

Inhibit cell wall synthesis

C.

Inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites

D.

Alter the function of cell membrane permeability

E.

Inhibit translation of genetic information

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Questions 54

Examples of extended spectrum penicillin may include:

Options:

A.

Amoxicillin

B.

Ampicillin

C.

Cloxacillin

D.

Carbenicillin

E.

Dicloxacillin

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Questions 55

Example of fourth generation cephalosporin includes:

Options:

A.

Ceftriaxone

B.

Cefipime

C.

Cefixime

D.

Cefotaxime

E.

Cefoxitin

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Questions 56

Nosocomial infections may be best treated by which of the following agents?

I- Cephalosporin 3rd generation

II- Macrolides antibiotics

III- Penicillins

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 57

Side effect of triamcinolone is:

Options:

A.

Asthma

B.

Nausea

C.

Cataracts

D.

Anxiety

E.

Hyperglycemia

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Questions 58

The only antibiotic available as chew able tablet includes:

Options:

A.

Penicillin

B.

Amoxicillin

C.

Ampicillin

D.

Erythromycin

E.

Clarithromycin

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Questions 59

Examples of drugs that may inhibit DNA gyrase may include:

Options:

A.

Gentamycin

B.

Ceftriaxone

C.

Norfloxacin

D.

Erythromycin

E.

Penicillin

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Questions 60

Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a year?

Options:

A.

Balance sheet

B.

Statement of investments

C.

Statement of changes in financial position

D.

Income statement

E.

Statement of equity

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Questions 61

Aerosol OT (AOT) is used in veterinary medicine as a laxative. If 250 g of AOT is dissolved in 1 000 mL of glycerin (density of glycerin is 1.25 g/mL), the concentration of AOT in the solution is:

Options:

A.

12.5% w/w.

B.

16.7% w/w.

C.

20.0% w/w.

D.

23.8% w/w.

E.

25.0% w/w.

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Questions 62

Condition characterized by a reversible form of airflow obstruction is known as:

Options:

A.

Aneurism

B.

Emphesema

C.

Embolism

D.

Cirrhose

E.

Jaundice

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Questions 63

Drug known as the new relative cromolyn like drug include:

Options:

A.

Cromolyn sodium

B.

Cromoglycanate sodium

C.

Cromolyin disodium

D.

Disodium cromoglycanate

E.

Nedocromil sodium

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Exam Code: FPGEE
Exam Name: Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination
Last Update: Nov 18, 2024
Questions: 426

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