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CTPRP Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Data loss prevention in endpoint security is the strategy for:

Options:

A.

Assuring there are adequate data backups in the event of a disaster

B.

Preventing exfiltration of confidential information by users who access company systems

C.

Enabling high-availability to prevent data transactions from loss

D.

Preventing malware from entering secure systems used for processing confidential information

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Questions 5

Which of the following factors is MOST important when assessing the risk of shadow IT in organizational security?

Options:

A.

The organization maintains adequate policies and procedures that communicate required controls for security functions

B.

The organization requires security training and certification for security personnel

C.

The organization defines staffing levels to address impact of any turnover in security roles

D.

The organization's resources and investment are sufficient to meet security requirements

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Questions 6

Which statement BEST describes the use of risk based decisioning in prioritizing gaps identified at a critical vendor when defining the corrective action plan?

Options:

A.

The assessor determined that gaps should be analyzed, documented, reviewed for compensating controls, and submitted to the business owner to approve risk treatment plan

B.

The assessor decided that the critical gaps should be discussed in the closing meeting so that the vendor can begin to implement corrective actions immediately

C.

The assessor concluded that all gaps should be logged and treated as high severity findings since the assessment was performed on a critical vendor

D.

The assessor determined that all gaps should be logged and communicated that if the gaps were corrected immediately they would not need to be included in the findings report

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Questions 7

When defining due diligence requirements for the set of vendors that host web applications which of the following is typically NOT part of evaluating the vendor's patch

management controls?

Options:

A.

The capability of the vendor to apply priority patching of high-risk systems

B.

Established procedures for testing of patches, service packs, and hot fixes prior to installation

C.

A documented process to gain approvals for use of open source applications

D.

The existence of a formal process for evaluation and prioritization of known vulnerabilities

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Questions 8

Which of the following components are typically NOT part of a cloud hosting vendor assessment program?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the entity's image snapshot approval and management process

B.

Requiring security services documentation and audit attestation reports

C.

Requiring compliance evidence that provides the definition of patching responsibilities

D.

Conducting customer performed penetration tests

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Questions 9

Upon completion of a third party assessment, a meeting should be scheduled with which

of the following resources prior to sharing findings with the vendor/service provider to

approve remediation plans:

Options:

A.

CISO/CIO

B.

Business Unit Relationship Owner

C.

internal Audit

D.

C&O

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Questions 10

When updating TPRM vendor classification requirements with a focus on availability, which

risk rating factors provide the greatest impact to the analysis?

Options:

A.

Type of data by classification; volume of records included in data processing

B.

Financial viability of the vendor; ability to meet performance metrics

C.

Network connectivity; remote access to applications

D.

impact on operations and end users; impact on revenue; impact on regulatory compliance

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Questions 11

Select the risk type that is defined as: “A third party may not be able to meet its obligations due to inadequate systems or processes”.

Options:

A.

Reliability risk

B.

Performance risk

C.

Competency risk

D.

Availability risk

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Questions 12

Which of the following BEST describes the distinction between a regulation and a standard?

Options:

A.

A regulation must be adhered to by all companies subject to its requirements, but companies “can voluntarily choose to follow standards.

B.

There is no distinction, regulations and standards are the same and have equal impact

C.

Standards are always a subset of a regulation

D.

A standard must be adhered to by companies based on the industry they are in, while regulations are voluntary.

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Questions 13

Which of the following statements is FALSE about Data Loss Prevention Programs?

Options:

A.

DLP programs include the policy, tool configuration requirements, and processes for the identification, blocking or monitoring of data

B.

DLP programs define the consequences for non-compliance to policies

C.

DLP programs define the required policies based on default tool configuration

D.

DLP programs include acknowledgement the company can apply controls to remove any data

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Questions 14

Which of the following BEST reflects components of an environmental controls testing program?

Options:

A.

Scheduling testing of building access and intrusion systems

B.

Remote monitoring of HVAC, Smoke, Fire, Water or Power

C.

Auditing the CCTV backup process and card-key access process

D.

Conducting periodic reviews of personnel access controls and building intrusion systems

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Questions 15

Which of the following is a component of evaluating a third party's use of Remote Access within their information security policy?

Options:

A.

Maintaining blocked IP address ranges

B.

Reviewing the testing and deployment procedures to networking components

C.

Providing guidelines to configuring ports on a router

D.

Identifying the use of multifactor authentication

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Questions 16

Minimum risk assessment standards for third party due diligence should be:

Options:

A.

Set by each business unit based on the number of vendors to be assessed

B.

Defined in the vendor/service provider contract or statement of work

C.

Established by the TPRM program based on the company’s risk tolerance and risk appetite

D.

Identified by procurement and required for all vendors and suppliers

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Questions 17

Which cloud deployment model is focused on the management of hardware equipment?

Options:

A.

Function as a service

B.

Platform as a service

C.

Software as a service

D.

Infrastructure as a service

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Questions 18

Which example BEST represents the set of restrictive areas that require an additional authentication factor for access control?

Options:

A.

Datacenters; telecom rooms; server rooms; exterior building entrance

B.

Datacenters; telecom rooms; security operations centers; loading docks

C.

Telecom rooms; parking garage; security operations centers; exterior building entrance

D.

Exterior building entrance; datacenters; telecom rooms; printer rooms

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Questions 19

Which of the following is NOT a key component of TPRM requirements in the software development life cycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

Maintenance of artifacts that provide proof that SOLC gates are executed

B.

Process for data destruction and disposal

C.

Software security testing

D.

Process for fixing security defects

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Questions 20

Which of the following would be a component of an arganization’s Ethics and Code of Conduct Program?

Options:

A.

Participation in the company's annual privacy awareness program

B.

A disciplinary process for non-compliance with key policies, including formal termination or change of status process based on non-compliance

C.

Signing acknowledgement of Acceptable Use policy for use of company assets

D.

A process to conduct periodic access reviews of critical Human Resource files

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Questions 21

Which cloud deployment model is primarily focused on the application layer?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure as a Service

B.

Software as a Service

C.

Function a3 a Service

D.

Platform as a Service

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Questions 22

When measuring the operational performance of implementing a TPRM program, which example is MOST likely to provide meaningful metrics?

Options:

A.

logging the number of exceptions to existing due diligence standards

B.

Measuring the time spent by resources for task and corrective action plan completion

C.

Calculating the average time to remediate identified corrective actions

D.

Tracking the number of outstanding findings

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Questions 23

Which of the following data types would be classified as low risk data?

Options:

A.

Sanitized customer data used for aggregated profiling

B.

Non personally identifiable, but sensitive to an organizations significant process

C.

Government-issued number, credit card number or bank account information

D.

Personally identifiable data but stored in a test environment cloud container

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Questions 24

Which set of procedures is typically NOT addressed within data privacy policies?

Options:

A.

Procedures to limit access and disclosure of personal information to third parties

B.

Procedures for handling data access requests from individuals

C.

Procedures for configuration settings in identity access management

D.

Procedures for incident reporting and notification

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Questions 25

Which statement is FALSE regarding analyzing results from a vendor risk assessment?

Options:

A.

The frequency for conducting a vendor reassessment is defined by regulatory obligations

B.

Findings from a vendor risk assessment may be defined at the entity level, and are based o na Specific topic or control

C.

Identifying findings from a vendor risk assessment can occur at any stage in the contract lifecycle

D.

Risk assessment findings identified by controls testing or validation should map back to the information gathering questionnaire and agreed upon framework

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Questions 26

Your organization has recently acquired a set of new global third party relationships due to M&A. You must define your risk assessment process based on your due diligence

standards. Which risk factor is LEAST important in defining your requirements?

Options:

A.

The risk of increased expense to conduct vendor assessments based on client contractual requirements

B.

The risk of natural disasters and physical security risk based on geolocation

C.

The risk of increased government regulation and decreased political stability based on country risk

D.

The financial risk due to local economic factors and country infrastructure

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Questions 27

Which statement is FALSE regarding the primary factors in determining vendor risk classification?

Options:

A.

The geographic area where the vendor is located may trigger specific regulatory obligations

B.

The importance to the outsourcer's recovery objectives may trigger a higher risk tier

C.

The type and volume of personal data processed may trigger a higher risk rating based on the criticality of the systems

D.

Network connectivity or remote access may trigger a higher vendor risk classification only for third parties that process personal information

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Questions 28

Which statement is NOT an accurate reflection of an organizations requirements within an enterprise information security policy?

Options:

A.

Security policies should define the organizational structure and accountabilities for oversight

B.

Security policies should have an effective date and date of last review by management

C.

Security policies should be changed on an annual basis due to technology changes

D.

Security policies should be organized based upon an accepted control framework

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Questions 29

Which factor in patch management is MOST important when conducting postcybersecurity incident analysis related to systems and applications?

Options:

A.

Configuration

B.

Log retention

C.

Approvals

D.

Testing

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Questions 30

You receive a call from a vendor that two laptops and a tablet are missing that were used to process your company data. The asset loss occurred two years ago, but was only recently discovered. That statement may indicate that this vendor is lacking an adequate:

Options:

A.

Asset Management Program

B.

Physical and Environmental Security Program

C.

Data Loss Prevention Program

D.

Information Security Incident Notification Policy

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Questions 31

Which statement BEST represents the primary objective of a third party risk assessment:

Options:

A.

To assess the appropriateness of non-disclosure agreements regarding the organization's systems/data

B.

To validate that the vendor/service provider has adequate controls in place based on the organization's risk posture

C.

To determine the scope of the business relationship

D.

To evaluate the risk posture of all vendors/service providers in the vendor inventory

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Questions 32

Which example is typically NOT included in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Including any contractual or legal/regulatory requirements

B.

Prioritization of business functions and processes

C.

Identifying the criticality of applications

D.

Requiring vendor participation in testing

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Questions 33

The set of shared values and beliefs that govern a company’s attitude toward risk is known as:

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk treatment

C.

Risk culture

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 34

Which statement is TRUE regarding artifacts reviewed when assessing the Cardholder Data Environment (CDE) in payment card processing?

Options:

A.

The Data Security Standards (DSS) framework should be used to scope the assessment

B.

The Report on Compliance (ROC) provides the assessment results completed by a qualified security assessor that includes an onsite audit

C.

The Self-Assessment Questionnaire (SAQ) provides independent testing of controls

D.

A System and Organization Controls (SOC) report is sufficient if the report addresses the same location

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Questions 35

When defining third party requirements for transmitting Pll, which factors provide stranger controls?

Options:

A.

Full disk encryption and backup

B.

Available bandwidth and redundancy

C.

Strength of encryption cipher and authentication method

D.

Logging and monitoring

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Questions 36

Which statement is NOT a method of securing web applications?

Options:

A.

Ensure appropriate logging and review of access and events

B.

Conduct periodic penetration tests

C.

Adhere to web content accessibility guidelines

D.

Include validation checks in SDLC for cross site scripting and SOL injections

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Questions 37

When evaluating remote access risk, which of the following is LEAST applicable to your analysis?

Options:

A.

Logging of remote access authentication attempts

B.

Limiting access by job role of business justification

C.

Monitoring device activity usage volumes

D.

Requiring application whitelisting

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Exam Code: CTPRP
Exam Name: Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP)
Last Update: Nov 22, 2024
Questions: 125

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