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CTFL_Syll2018 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A data driven approach to test automation design is best described as:

Options:

A.

Using action words to describe the actions to be taken, the test data.

B.

Scaling to support large numbers of users.

C.

Being based on Equivalence Partitioning testing techniques.

D.

Separating out the test data inputs and using a generic script that can read the test data and perform the same test steps with different data.

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Questions 5

The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage is required on exit from component testing. [K4]

The following test cases have been run:

Test Case 1 covering path P,Q,R,U

Test Case 2 covering path P,Q,S,V

Test Case 3 covering path P,Q,S,W,X

Test case 4 covering path P,Q,S,W,Y

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL_Syll2018 Question 5

Options:

A.

Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%

B.

Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.

C.

Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%

D.

Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%

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Questions 6

How does software testing contribute to the quality of delivered software? [K2]

Options:

A.

By detecting and removing all the defects in the delivered code and ensuring that all tests adhere to the quality standards set for the project

B.

By measuring reliability of the software and ensuring that it is always above 99.99%

C.

By identifying root causes of defects from past projects and using the lessons learned to improve processes and thus help to reduce the defect count

D.

By detecting all deviations from coding good practice and ensuring that these are corrected

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Questions 7

A system calculates the amount of customs duty to be paid:

_ No duty is paid on goods value up to, and including, $2,000.

_ The next $8,000 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $20,000 after that is taxed at 12%.

_ Any further amount after that is taxed at 17%.

To the nearest $, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

Options:

A.

$20,000 $20,001 $30,001

B.

$2,000 $2,001 $10,000

C.

$2,000 $8,000 $20,000

D.

$1,500 $2,000 $10,000

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Questions 8

Which of the following is NOT a common objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Providing information on the status of the system

B.

Preventing defects

C.

Finding defects in the software

D.

Debugging the software to find the reason for defects

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Questions 9

Which of the following are triggers for Maintenance testing?

a) System migration from one platform to another.

b) Retirement of a system.

c) Preparation for an audit of a system.

d) Modifications to a system.

e) Development of a whole new system.

Options:

A.

a, c and d.

B.

b, c and e.

C.

a, d and e.

D.

a, b and d.

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Questions 10

CTFL_Syll2018 Question 10

The decision table above reflects a golf club's pricing structure for green fees and buggy/cart hire.

What is the expected result (actions) for each of the following two test cases (TC1 and TC2)?

* TC 1 - Paul is not a full member, is a Loyalty Card holder and requests to play 18 holes with a buggy/cart

* TC 2 - Cheryl is not at full member, doesn't have a Loyalty Card and requests to play 9 holes with a buggy/cart

Options:

A.

TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

B.

TC1 - £18 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed

C.

TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed

D.

TC1 - £17 total charges but no buggy allowed; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

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Questions 11

It is recommended to perform exhaustive tests for covering all combinations of inputs and preconditions.

Options:

A.

Yes, it’s strongly recommended.

B.

No, risk analysis and priorities should be used to focus testing efforts

C.

Yes, and it’s also necessary to include all the exit combinations

D.

Only the expert testers can make exhaustive tests.

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Questions 12

What is the main reason for using a pilot project to introduce a testing tool into an organization? [K1]

Options:

A.

To identify the requirements for using a tool

B.

To make a selection between alternative tools

C.

To assess whether the tool will be cost- effective

D.

To ensure the tools fits existing processes without change

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Questions 13

What is static analysis?

Options:

A.

The decision between using white or black box test techniques.

B.

Executing software to validate the most common path through the code.

C.

A technique to find defects in software source code and software models, performed without executing code.

D.

It is a testing technique used during system testing.

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Questions 14

When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which of the following tasks would NOT typically be performed by a tester?

Options:

A.

Prepare and acquire the test data

B.

Set up and check the test environment

C.

Write test summary reports

D.

Review tests developed by others

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Questions 15

Which of the following are product risks?

a) Failure prone software delivered.

b) Software does not perform its intended functions.

c) Insufficient staff available for testing.

d) Test environment not ready on time.

e) Poor data integrity and quality.

Options:

A.

b, c and e.

B.

b, d and e.

C.

a, b and e.

D.

b, c and d.

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Questions 16

Which of the following is a consideration when deploying test execution tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Data-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

B.

Recorded manual tests may become unstable in use

C.

Keyword-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

D.

Expected results for tests are not required because the tool generates expected results

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Questions 17

A test case starts at S1 and triggers 4 events in sequence: E1, E4, E5, E7. What will be the finishing state and the output(s) from the test case? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL_Syll2018 Question 17

Options:

A.

S2 and O4

B.

S4 and O2

C.

S4 and O4

D.

S2 and O2

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Questions 18

What type of test design technique is the most effective in testing screen-dialog flows?

Options:

A.

Use case testing

B.

Boundary value testing

C.

Statement testing and coverage

D.

State transition testing

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Questions 19

When an organization considers the use of testing tools, they should:

Options:

A.

Use a tool in order to help define a good test process because the tool will force process repeatability and therefore enforce good test process.

B.

Always start by bringing in automated test execution tools as these tools have the greatest return on investment and therefore should be introduced first.

C.

Perform analysis of the test process and then assess whether it can be supported through the introduction of tool support.

D.

Allow the developers to select the testing tools because tools are technical and developers have the appropriate skills to advise on test tool selection and configuration.

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Questions 20

Why is independent testing important? [K1]

Options:

A.

Because independent testers make fewer assumptions than developers

B.

Because independent testers are isolated from the development team

C.

Because independent testers can verify assumptions made during specification and implementation of the system

D.

Because independent testers have a greater sense of responsibility for quality than developers

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Questions 21

Given the following state transition diagram where SS is the start state:

CTFL_Syll2018 Question 21

Which of the following answers describes a test case that only uses valid transitions to exercise all states, using the minimum number of transitions?

Options:

A.

SS-S3-SS-S1-S3-S2.

B.

SS-S3-S2-S1.

C.

SS-S1-S2-S3.

D.

SS-S1-S3-S2.

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Questions 22

Which of the following statements about test execution effort is true?

Options:

A.

An increase in number of testers always reduces testing time.

B.

A large number of test repetitions mean less test execution effort.

C.

The test execution effort is independent of the number of test environments.

D.

The test case execution effort is dependent on the build quality.

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Questions 23

Which of the following accurately defines the integration testing test level? [K2]

Options:

A.

Test basis includes software and system design, test objects include interfaces, and tests concentrate on the interactions between different parts of a system

B.

Test basis includes component requirements, test objects include database modules, and tests concentrate on the behaviour of the system as a whole.

C.

Test basis includes business processes, test objects include system configuration and configuration data, and tests concentrate on establishing confidence in the system

D.

Test basis includes use cases, test objects include user procedures and tests concentrate on a high level model of system behaviour

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Questions 24

The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are:

Options:

A.

Unit, integration, system and maintenance.

B.

Functional, glass box, incremental and maintenance.

C.

Component, integration, system and acceptance.

D.

Unit, component, functional and alpha/beta.

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Questions 25

When can functional and structural testing BOTH be applied?

Options:

A.

System and Component test levels only

B.

All 'Developement' test levels, i.e. those before Acceptance testing

C.

Component and Component integration test levels only

D.

All test levels

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Questions 26

The following diagram lists various types of operating systems, databases and application servers supported by the application under test. For complete coverage of all combinations, how many combinations of the above are to be tested?

CTFL_Syll2018 Question 26

Options:

A.

11

B.

5

C.

45

D.

3

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Questions 27

The Cambrian Pullman Express has special ticketing requirements represented by the partial decision table below.

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL_Syll2018 Question 27

Carol has a student railcard and is travelling on a Flexible Standard Class ticket. James has a senior railcard and is travelling on a super saver ticket. Which of the options represents the correct actions for these two test cases? [K3]

Options:

A.

Carol is eligible to upgrade; James cannot use the service

B.

Carol is OK to travel; James is eligible for an upgrade

C.

Carol and James are both eligible to upgrade

D.

Carol is OK to travel; James cannot use the service

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Questions 28

Which of the following risks represents the highest level of risk to the project?

Options:

A.

Likelihood of failure = 1%, potential cost of impact = $1m.

B.

Likelihood of failure = 10%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.

C.

Likelihood of failure = 20%, potential cost of impact = $150,000.

D.

Likelihood of failure = 5%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.

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Questions 29

You have to specify test cases based on equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis for an internet shop selling baby shoes The shop provides a selection of shoes based on the following input parameters:

- There are 4 different sizes, depending on the age of the baby. The system selects the appropriate size based on the following criteria:

CTFL_Syll2018 Question 29

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The total number of combinations of valid equivalence classes of age and gender is 8.

B.

There are two invalid equivalence classes for the age input parameter: age <= 0, and age > 25

C.

All combinations of valid equivalence classes could be covered with 4 test cases.

D.

All valid equivalence classes could be covered with 6 test cases.

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Questions 30

Which of the following are benefits of an independent test team, and which are drawbacks?

a) Independent testers can find different defects.

b) Developers may put less emphasis on quality.

c) Independent testers can be seen as the reason for delayed projects.

d) Independent testers can verify assumptions made during the specification of a system.

Options:

A.

a and b are benefits, c and d are drawbacks.

B.

b and c are benefits, a and d are drawbacks.

C.

a and d are benefits, b and c are drawbacks.

D.

c and d are benefits, a and b are drawbacks.

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Questions 31

Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]

Options:

A.

Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

B.

Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

C.

Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

D.

Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction

has cleared the original defect

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Questions 32

When should testers be involved in reviewing a UAT specification? [K1]

Options:

A.

At the beginning of the project

B.

As soon as requirements have been approved

C.

As soon as the UAT specification has been drafted

D.

At any time before UAT begins

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Questions 33

What factors should be considered to determine whether enough testing has been performed?

(i)The exit criteria.

(ii)The budget.

(iii)How big the test team is.

(iv)The product's risk profile.

(v)How good the testing tools are.

(vi)Sufficient details of the system status to allow decisions

Options:

A.

i and ii and iv and vi

B.

i and ii and iii and vi

C.

ii and iii and iv and v

D.

i and ii and v and vi

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Questions 34

Which of the following statements about use-case testing are most accurate?

(i)In a use-case diagram an actor represents a type of user.

(ii)Use-cases are the most common test basis for unit testing.

(iii)A use-case describes interactions between actors.

(iv)An actor is always a human user that interacts with the system.

(v)Test cases can be based on use-case scenarios.

(vi)Use-case testing will often identify gaps not found by testing individual components.

Options:

A.

ii, iii, iv, v

B.

i, iii, v, vi

C.

i, ii, iv, v

D.

iii, iv, v, vi

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Questions 35

Test objectives for systems testing of a safety critical system include completion of all outstanding defect correction. Regression testing is required following defect correction at all test levels. Which TWO of the following metrics would be MOST suitable for determining whether the test objective has been met? [K2]

a. Regression tests run and passed in systems testing

b. Incidents closed in systems testing

c. Planned tests run and passed in system testing

d. Planned tests run and passed at all levels of testing

e. Incidents raised and closed at all levels of testing

Options:

A.

a and e

B.

b and c

C.

d and e

D.

a and b

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Questions 36

Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects. What are effective ways to improve the communication and relationship between testers and others?

a)Communicate factual information in a constructive way.

b)Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do.

c)Always outsource testing activities.

d)Never record information that could be used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

Options:

A.

a and b

B.

a, b and c

C.

a, b and d

D.

a and c

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Questions 37

What is a test condition?

Options:

A.

A statement of test objectives and test ideas on how to test.

B.

An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases.

C.

The process of identifying differences between the actual results and the expected results for a test.

D.

All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.

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Questions 38

From the following list, which of the following apply to experience-based techniques? [K2]

a. Test cases are derived from a model of the problem to be solved or the software

b. Test cases are derived from the knowledge of the testers

c. The knowledge of testers, developers and users is used to drive testing

d. The internal structure of the code is used to derive test cases

Options:

A.

a and b.

B.

c and d.

C.

a and d.

D.

b and c.

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Questions 39

Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between test planning and test execution? [K2]

Options:

A.

Test planning ensures the level of detail in test procedures is appropriate for test execution

B.

Test planning schedules test execution but does not assign resources

C.

Test planning defines the overall approach to testing but does not schedule specific activities such as test execution

D.

Test planning identifies test objectives related to scope and risk but does not define the level of detail for test procedures used in test execution

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Questions 40

What other details should be included in the following incident report when it is first submitted?

Date of Issue: 23/11/05

Severity: P1

Build: Version15.6

Details: Expected field to be limited to 15 chars, able to enter 27

Options:

A.

Suggested solution, priority and number of defects assigned to this developer.

B.

Status of the incident, degree of impact, Test Case Number.

C.

History, related defects and expected fix time.

D.

Line of code, number of defects found, time of day.

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Questions 41

Which of the following test case design techniques is white box (structure-based)? [K1]

Options:

A.

Use case testing

B.

State transition testing

C.

Decision testing

D.

Equivalence partitioning

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Questions 42

Which of the following metrics could be used to monitor progress along with test preparation and execution? [K1]

Options:

A.

The total number of tests planned

B.

The total number of requirements to be tested

C.

The failure rate in testing already completed

D.

The number of testers used for test execution so far

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Questions 43

Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

Options:

A.

Independent testers within the development teams

B.

Independent testers from the user community

C.

Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists

D.

Code tested by another developer from the development team

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Questions 44

Which type of review has the following main purposes:

discussing, making decisions, evaluating alternatives, finding defects, solving technical problems and checking conformance to specifications, plans, regulations, and standards?

Options:

A.

Technical Review

B.

Inspection

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

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Questions 45

Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Static analysis tools can be applied to new code but cannot be applied to existing code

B.

Static analysis tools can be used to enforce coding standards

C.

Static analysis tools always generate large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code, even if the code meets coding standards

D.

Static analysis tools do not generate warning messages when applied to existing code

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Questions 46

Typically, exit criteria may consist of:

Options:

A.

Defining the amount, level of detail structure, and templates for the test documentation.

B.

Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

C.

Adequacy of the test approaches taken.

D.

Discussions on disaster recovery.

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Questions 47

Which statement BEST describes when test planning should be performed? [K1]

Options:

A.

Test planning is performed only once, at the beginning of the life cycle, andgenerates a Master Test Plan

B.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at the beginning of test execution

C.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at every test level

D.

Test planning is performed continuously in all life cycle processes and activities

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Questions 48

Which of the following is a role of a formal review? [K1]

Options:

A.

Adjudicator

B.

Moderator

C.

Governor

D.

Corrector

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Questions 49

What is the difference between system integration testing and acceptance testing?

Options:

A.

System integration testing is testing non-functional requirements Acceptance testing concentrates on the functionality of the system

B.

System integration testing is executed by the developers. Acceptance testing is done by the customer

C.

System integration testing verifies that a system interfaces correctly with other systems. Acceptance testing verifies compliance to requirements

D.

System integration testing verifies compliance to requirements Acceptance testing verifies correct interaction with other systems existing in the user's environment

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Questions 50

Which of the following factors will MOST affect the testing effort required to test a software product? [K1]

Options:

A.

The number of staff available to execute tests

B.

The level of detail in the test plan

C.

The requirements for reliability and security in the product

D.

The test estimation method used

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Questions 51

Which of the following errors CANNOT be found with structure-based testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Memory is leaking

B.

Features are only partially implemented

C.

Data structures that are used before initialization

D.

Division by zero

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Questions 52

Which of the following tool types is the most useful one for a test manager?

Options:

A.

Modeling tool

B.

Static analysis tool

C.

Coverage measurement tool

D.

Defect tracking tool

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Questions 53

A software company decided to buy a commercial application for its accounting operations. As part of the evaluation process, the company decided to assemble a team to test a number of candidate applications.

Which team would be the most suitable for this goal?

Options:

A.

A team from an outsourcing company which specializes in testing accounting software

B.

A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department

C.

A team of users from the accounting department that will need to use the application on dairy basis

D.

A team from the company's testing team, due to their experience in testing software

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Questions 54

What does the term Pesticide paradox' refer to?

Options:

A.

The phenomena where a piece of code that has a lot of bugs is likely to have more hidden, yet unfound

B.

The decreasing efficiency of debugging when done in code that has many bugs

C.

Reduced effectiveness of test cases that are repeated and focused on the same scenarios

D.

The redundancy of testing the same objects in both black and white box techniques

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Questions 55

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Incident management tools are used by testers only

B.

A configuration management tool has nothing to do with testing

C.

Test management tools are used by managers only

D.

A requirements management tool may be considered as test support tool

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Questions 56

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

Pair programming is done with developer and tester pairing together

B.

Pair programming is an alternative term for code inspection.

C.

Pair programming is used usually in waterfall model

D.

Pair programming is, among other things, an informal review method.

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Questions 57

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

Options:

A.

I, Ill

B.

II, Ill

C.

II, IV

D.

I, IV

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Questions 58

Which of the following is a task of the Test Analysis and Design activity of the test process?

Options:

A.

Measuring the percentage of prepared test cases with what was actually prepared

B.

Identifying necessary test data to support the test conditions and test cases

C.

Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly

D.

Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning

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Questions 59

Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

Code inspection

B.

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

C.

Functional Testing

D.

Coverage analysis

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Questions 60

Which of the following is NOT an example of a common test metric?

Options:

A.

Percentage of work done in test environment creation

B.

Average number of expected defects per requirement

C.

Number of test cases run

D.

Deviation from test milestone dates

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Questions 61

Which of the following test techniques is structure-based?

Options:

A.

Control flow testing

B.

Use case testing

C.

State transition testing

D.

Decision table testing

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Questions 62

Which of the following is NOT a factor on which test estimation is dependent upon?

Options:

A.

Defect debugging and resolution

B.

The outcome of testing of previous test cycle

C.

Characteristics of the development process

D.

Characteristics of the product

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Questions 63

The following test cases for a Library Management System are available to test changes made to the functions and data structures associated with borrowers

1. Add a new borrower to the system

2. Update a borrower's data

3. Remove a borrower from the system

4. Loan a book to a borrower

5. Return a book from a borrower

6. Reserve a book for a borrower

7. Send "reservation ready" message to a borrower

Which of the following test sequences represents a possible use case? (a test sequence always start with test #1)

Options:

A.

1-4-2-7-5-6-3

B.

1-6-2-5-7-4-3

C.

1-6-4-7-5-3-2

D.

1-2-6-7-4-5-3

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Questions 64

Testing should provide sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions about the release of the software or system being tested. At which of the following fundamental test process activity the sufficiency of the testing and the resulting information are assessed?

Options:

A.

Implementation and execution

B.

Requirements specification

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

D.

Analysis and design

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Questions 65

A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer

- Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10.

- Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15

- Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted. Assume that only integer values can occur. Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes?

Options:

A.

0-1999-2000-5000

B.

1-2000-5001-10000

C.

0-100-2000-6000

D.

99-1- 2000- 4999,99

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Questions 66

Which of the following test types is a part of the V-Model?

Options:

A.

Black-box testing

B.

White-box testing

C.

Experience-based testing

D.

Component testing

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Questions 67

Given the following requirement:

CTFL_Syll2018 Question 67

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

B.

Thursday is a valid input boundary value

C.

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age

D.

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value

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Questions 68

When testing a mission critical system a high coverage should be achieved. Which of the following techniques should be implemented as a structural based coverage technique in order to achieve highest coverage?

Options:

A.

multiple condition coverage

B.

decision table

C.

use case testing

D.

statement coverage

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Questions 69

Which of the following is NOT an example of a typical risk-based testing activity?

Options:

A.

The evaluation of a risk-management tools to decide which tool to use for future projects

B.

The focus of testing is shifted to an area in the system where tests find with more defects than expected

C.

Brainstorming sessions are held with a wide variety of stakeholders to identify possible failures in the system

D.

Tests are prioritized to ensure that those associated with critical parts of the system are executed earlier

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Questions 70

Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Finding defects

B.

Providing information for decision-making

C.

Analyzing and removing the cause of failures

D.

Gaining confidence about the level of quality of the software

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Questions 71

Once a bug is fixed, it should be retested. What is the term used to define this type of testing?

Options:

A.

Reliability Testing

B.

Confirmation Testing

C.

Maintainability Testing

D.

Regression Testing

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Questions 72

A software company adopts the V-model as their development life cycle. Which of the following contains roles of a tester in this company?

Options:

A.

Decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how.

B.

Review test plans and set up test environments.

C.

Coordinate the test strategy with the project managers

D.

Introduce suitable metrics to measure the testing progress

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Questions 73

The following sentences refer to the Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829). Which sentence is correct?

Options:

A.

The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard

B.

Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development

C.

This test plan outline is relevant for military projects For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items

D.

Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization

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Questions 74

Where and by whom is Beta testing normally performed?

Options:

A.

By customers or potential customers at their own locations

B.

By an independent test team at the developing organization's location

C.

At the developing organization's site, but not by the developing team

D.

By customers or potential customers at the developing organization's site

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Questions 75

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning However the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever

Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

Options:

A.

Incident Management Tool

B.

Configuration Management Tool

C.

Test Execution tool

D.

Backup tool

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Questions 76

A Software was re-deployed because the backend database was changed from one vendor to another The Test Manager decided to perform some functional tests on the redeployed system. This is an example of test of which test type?

Options:

A.

Regression tests

B.

Non-functional tests

C.

Structural tests

D.

Unit tests

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Questions 77

In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing, Which of the following sentences describes one of these basic principles?

Options:

A.

Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools

B.

For a software system, it is not possible under normal conditions, to test all input and output combinations.

C.

A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free

D.

With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the quality of a product than with manual testing.

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Questions 78

Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

Intrusive test tools are tools that do not exhibit the probe-effect

B.

Testing tools can be used by both developers and testers

C.

Use of testing tools is effective only when done as part of a test automation system

D.

Testing tools allow developers do testing Use of such tools changes the role of the test team

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Questions 79

"Statement Testing" is part of;

Options:

A.

Experience based testing

B.

Decision Testing

C.

Specification Based testing

D.

Structured based testing

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Questions 80

The following program part is given:

IF (condition A)

then DO B

END IF

How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

4

D.

a very high number

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Questions 81

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects

C.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system

D.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

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Questions 82

Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor in determining the extent of testing required?

Options:

A.

Budget to do testing

B.

A particular tester involved in testing

C.

Level of risk of the product or features

D.

Time available to do testing

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Questions 83

Which of the following is an appropriate reason for maintenance testing?

Options:

A.

Bugs found in the field after upgrading the operation system

B.

Bugs found during system testing

C.

Bugs found during unit testing

D.

Bugs found during integration testing

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Questions 84

Which of the following is a correct set of boundary values to test the "Group Size" parameter, as defined by the following statement;

"In a reservation system for groups visiting a small museum, the graphical user interface presents a field asking the number of group members. Group size can be anywhere from 2 to 20 visitors"

Options:

A.

0,1,8,21,22

B.

0,1,2,3,10,19,20,21,22

C.

2,3,19,20

D.

1,2,20,21

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Questions 85

Which of the following test cases will ensure that the statement ‘Print ‘Hold’’ is exercised? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL_Syll2018 Question 85

Options:

A.

X=2, Y=2, Z=2

B.

X=2, Y=3, Z=4

C.

X=2, Y=4, Z=3

D.

X=4, Y=3, Z=2

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Questions 86

Which statement about use case testing is true?

Options:

A.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow.

B.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow

C.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

D.

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users

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Questions 87

What is the ideal number of regression test cycles?

Options:

A.

As many as time and budget allow

B.

2

C.

1

D.

Until the quality requirements are met

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Questions 88

After a record of poor-quality software releases (incorrect menu selection options, new features that do not work, users allowed to change security levels without administrator rights), you have been asked to review the test capability in your company.

You have limited time to do the review before the next project, which type of testing would be MOST appropriate to review first?

Options:

A.

Functional testing.

B.

Non-functional testing.

C.

Performance testing.

D.

Structural testing.

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Questions 89

Consider the following pseudo-code

CTFL_Syll2018 Question 89

How many minimum test cases are required to cover 100% Statement coverage and Decision coverage?

Options:

A.

5 for Statement, 5 for Decision

B.

4 for Statement, 5 for Decision

C.

8 for Statement, 6 for Decision

D.

6 for Statement, 8 for Decision

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Questions 90

Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

Options:

A.

Risk level Is calculated by adding the probabilities of all planned risks to a project

B.

Risk level Is determined by the likelihood of an event happening and the impact or harm from that event

C.

Risk level Is calculated by dividing the sum of all known risks by the sum of all unknown risks

D.

Risk level is determined by calculating the absolute value of the sum of all potential issues that may occur on the project

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Questions 91

Which of the following statements describes regression testing?

I. Retesting of a fixed defect

II Testing of an already tested program

III. Testing of new functionality in a program

IV. Regression testing applies only to functional testing

V Tests that do not have to be repeatable. because they are only used once

Options:

A.

II

B.

II. IV, V

C.

I.IV

D.

I, III, IV

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Questions 92

Which of the following lists contains only black-box test techniques?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing. State transition testing, Control flow testing

B.

Decision table testing. Use case testing, Control flow testing

C.

Decision table testing, Use case testing, State transition testing

D.

Use case testing, Statement testing, State transition testing

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Questions 93

While reporting a defect, which of the following indicates the level of business importance assigned to the defect?

Options:

A.

Urgency

B.

Priority

C.

Difficulty

D.

Severity

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Questions 94

Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques?

1. Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the requirements, use cases and user stories

2. Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the software architecture or code

3. Test cases can show deviations from the requirements

4. These test techniques are applicable to both functional and non-functional testing

5. Tests are based on knowledge of developers, users and other stakeholders

Black - Black-box test techniques White - White-box test techniques Experience - Experience-based test techniques

Options:

A.

Black -1.2 White - 3. 4 Experience - 5

B.

Black -2.3 White -1.5 Experience - 4

C.

Black -2.3 White - 1 Experience - 4. 5

D.

Black -1.3.4 White - 2 Experience - 5

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Questions 95

Which of the following is a Black Box test design technique?

Options:

A.

Decision Coverage

B.

Error Guessing

C.

Statement Coverage

D.

Equivalence Partitioning

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Questions 96

What is a defect density?

Options:

A.

The percentage of defects identified over the total number of test cases

B.

The deviation rate of the system from its expected behavior

C.

The ratio of the defects identified in these system over the expected number of total defects

D.

The number of defects identified in the system under test divided by the size of the system

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Questions 97

Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PROJECT risk?

Options:

A.

A system architecture may not support some non-functional requirements

B.

A computation is not always performed correctly in some situations

C.

Team members' skills may not be sufficient for the assigned work

D.

Specific modules do not adequately meet their intended functions according to the user

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Questions 98

Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to be used as the basis fcr a test exit criteria?

Options:

A.

Cost of testing performed so far

B.

Number of unfixed defects

C.

Confidence of testers in tested code

D.

Test schedules

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Questions 99

Given the following types of testing and testing scenarios:

a. Regression testing

b. Confirmation testing

1. Testing to ensure the application of a new version of the operating system does not have any unintended side-effects on the system

2. Testing due to the application of a security patch

3. Testing due to the application of a new version of the database management system

4. Testing to ensure the fix to the payroll system truly works

Which of the following BEST matches the type of testing with the testing scenario?

Options:

A.

1-a, 2-a, 3-b, 4-b

B.

4-a, 3-a, 1-b, 2-b

C.

1-a, 2-a, 3-a, 4-b

D.

4-a, 3-a, 2-b, 1-b

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Questions 100

Which activity in the fundamental test process includes test script generation?

Options:

A.

Test closure activities

B.

Test analysis and design

C.

Test planning and control

D.

Test implementation and execution

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Questions 101

The following condition is given:

Integer x, y; IFx>0ANDx< 100

y = y + x; END-IF

Using boundary analysis for x. which test cases are required?

Options:

A.

-1,0.1,99.100, 101

B.

-1,0. 100,101

C.

-500,-10,0.1,99.100.101,500

D.

0, 1.99, 100

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Questions 102

A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display Age groups are

Group I: 0-12

Group II: 13-18

Group III: over 18

Which of the below represent boundary values?

Options:

A.

(0, 12, 13,18,19)

B.

(-1,0,11,12,13,14,18,19)

C.

(4,5,15,20)

D.

(-1.0,12,13,18,19)

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Questions 103

Consider the following excerpt from a defect report:

To recreate the failure we used test file TST_01_TC_16.dat which is available in the common shared folder''.

Which incident report objective does this excerpt satisfy?

Options:

A.

Provides developers with information to isolate the failure

B.

Provides ideas for test process improvement

C.

Does not belong in an incident report.

D.

Provides test leaders with information to report test progress

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Questions 104

Which of the following is a key characteristic of informal reviews?

Options:

A.

Metrics analysis

B.

Kick-off meeting

C.

Individual preparation

D.

Low cost

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Questions 105

A class grade application for instructors assigns letter grades based on students' numerical grades. The letter grades for different numerical grades should be:

Above 89. up to 100 – A

Above 79. up to 89 - B

Above 69. up to 79 – C

Above 59. up to 69 - D Below 60 - F

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage?

Options:

A.

0, 58, 59, 70, 80

B.

69, 79, 80, 89, 90

C.

74, 79, 84, 85, 89

D.

79,89,90,99,100

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Questions 106

Which of the following statements about test reports are TRUE?

I. Test reports shall be approved by the test team.

II. Test reports shall give stakeholders information as basis for decisions

III. Test reports shall summarize what happened through a period of testing,

IV. Test reports shall be approved by the development team, the test team and the customer

V. Test reports shall include information about remaining risks.

Options:

A.

II,1V

B.

II. III. IV

C.

I, III. V

D.

II, III. V

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Questions 107

Which of the following options describe the causal chain in the correct sequence?

Options:

A.

Error, fault, failure

B.

Fault, bug, mistake

C.

Mistake, failure, fault

D.

Failure, bug, error

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Questions 108

Which of the following is a typical characteristic of the WALKTHROUGH review type?

Options:

A.

The meeting is led by the author.

B.

Metrics are gathered throughout.

C.

Attendees must prepare before the meeting.

D.

Entry and exit criteria are defined.

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Questions 109

What is a typical benefit of use case testing?

Options:

A.

Finding failures in the possible states transitions

B.

Clearer identification of system equivalence partitioning

C.

Finding of failures in the business process flows, which highlight system use in the real world

D.

Identification of bugs in the system components.

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Exam Code: CTFL_Syll2018
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018)
Last Update: Nov 17, 2024
Questions: 365

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