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CTFL-Foundation ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following test cases will ensure that the statement ‘Print ‘Hold’’ is exercised? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL-Foundation Question 4

Options:

A.

X=2, Y=2, Z=2

B.

X=2, Y=3, Z=4

C.

X=2, Y=4, Z=3

D.

X=4, Y=3, Z=2

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Questions 5

Which of the following characteristics is most likely to promote effective software testing? [K1]

Options:

A.

Independence from the production process

B.

A belief that programmers always make mistakes

C.

Knowledge of the number of defects typically found in a program

D.

Confidence that the next stage will find defects missed at this stage

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Questions 6

Test objectives for systems testing of a safety critical system include completion of all outstanding defect correction. Regression testing is required following defect correction at all test levels. Which TWO of the following metrics would be MOST suitable for determining whether the test objective has been met? [K2]

a. Regression tests run and passed in systems testing

b. Incidents closed in systems testing

c. Planned tests run and passed in system testing

d. Planned tests run and passed at all levels of testing

e. Incidents raised and closed at all levels of testing

Options:

A.

a and e

B.

b and c

C.

d and e

D.

a and b

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Questions 7

Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:

Options:

A.

Determine differences between files or databases.

B.

Monitor and report on how a system behaves under a variety of conditions.

C.

Find defects, such as memory leaks, while software is executing.

D.

Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure that have been exercised.

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Questions 8

How does software testing contribute to the quality of delivered software? [K2]

Options:

A.

By detecting and removing all the defects in the delivered code and ensuring that all tests adhere to the quality standards set for the project

B.

By measuring reliability of the software and ensuring that it is always above 99.99%

C.

By identifying root causes of defects from past projects and using the lessons learned to improve processes and thus help to reduce the defect count

D.

By detecting all deviations from coding good practice and ensuring that these are corrected

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Questions 9

Which of the following are valid test objectives?

(i)Finding defects.

(ii)Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information.

(iii)Preventing defects.

(iv)Debugging the code.

Options:

A.

i, ii and iii

B.

i, ii and iv

C.

ii and iii

D.

i and iv

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Questions 10

Which of the following test case design techniques is white box (structure-based)? [K1]

Options:

A.

Use case testing

B.

State transition testing

C.

Decision testing

D.

Equivalence partitioning

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Questions 11

What is a test condition?

Options:

A.

A statement of test objectives and test ideas on how to test.

B.

An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases.

C.

The process of identifying differences between the actual results and the expected results for a test.

D.

All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.

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Questions 12

Which of the following is a white box testing design characteristic?

Options:

A.

To be based on specifications

B.

To be based on an analysis of the test basis documentation

C.

To be based on an analysis of the structure of the component or system

D.

To include both functional and non-functional testing

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Questions 13

System testing is:

Options:

A.

Used to search for defects in software modules that are separately testable.

B.

The responsibility of the users of a system.

C.

Concerned with the behavior of a whole system/product as defined by the scope of a development project.

D.

Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of the software system.

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Questions 14

Which of the following metrics could be used to monitor progress along with test preparation and execution? [K1]

Options:

A.

The total number of tests planned

B.

The total number of requirements to be tested

C.

The failure rate in testing already completed

D.

The number of testers used for test execution so far

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Questions 15

Which of the following test design techniques is classified as a structure-based (white box) technique? [K1]

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Decision table testing

C.

State transition testing

D.

Statement testing

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Questions 16

Which statement BEST describes when test planning should be performed? [K1]

Options:

A.

Test planning is performed only once, at the beginning of the life cycle, andgenerates a Master Test Plan

B.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at the beginning of test execution

C.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at every test level

D.

Test planning is performed continuously in all life cycle processes and activities

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Questions 17

What can testing demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Testing can demonstrate that there are no defects

B.

Testing can demonstrate that there are defects

C.

Testing can demonstrate that the software is correct

D.

Testing can demonstrate that there are no hidden defects in the software

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Questions 18

A test case starts at S1 and triggers 4 events in sequence: E1, E4, E5, E7. What will be the finishing state and the output(s) from the test case? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL-Foundation Question 18

Options:

A.

S2 and O4

B.

S4 and O2

C.

S4 and O4

D.

S2 and O2

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Questions 19

Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects. What are effective ways to improve the communication and relationship between testers and others?

a)Communicate factual information in a constructive way.

b)Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do.

c)Always outsource testing activities.

d)Never record information that could be used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

Options:

A.

a and b

B.

a, b and c

C.

a, b and d

D.

a and c

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Questions 20

What content would be in an incident report if that incident report was based on the IEEE 829 Standard for SoftwareTest Documentation?

(i)Identification of configuration items of the software or system.

(ii)Software or system lifecycle process in which the incident was observed.

(iii)Description of the anomaly to enable reproduction of the incident.

(iv)Number of occurrences of the incident.

(v)Classification of the cause of the incident for metrics and for reporting purposes.

Number of correct answers: 1

Options:

A.

i, ii, iii

B.

ii, iii

C.

i, iii, iv

D.

i, ii, iii, v

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Questions 21

An iPhone application identifies and counts all purchases of a particular product from a shopping website. The application incorrectly counts purchase attempts by including both failed attempts, and also those where the purchase was terminated by the user before completion. Testing has identified that the problem was located in the ‘purchase identification’ module, where the first stage in the purchasing process was counted, rather than a successful confirmed purchase.

Which of the following statements correctly identifies what has happened? [K2]

Options:

A.

The application failed because of a defect in the purchase identification module caused by a programmer mistake or an error in the specification.

B.

An error by the programmer led to a mistake in the purchase identification module and this caused a defect in the application

C.

A defect in the purchase identification module caused by a mistake in the module specification led to a defect in the overall application

D.

A bug in the purchase identification module caused a fault in the application

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Questions 22

Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.

B.

Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density.

C.

The last executable statement within a component.

D.

Cost overruns.

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Questions 23

What is the value of static code analysis?

Options:

A.

Detection of failures not easily found by other types of testing

B.

Early defect detection

C.

Detection of suspicious operations caused by deviations from regulations

D.

Detect deviations in standards by executing the source code

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Questions 24

Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

Options:

A.

Independent testers within the development teams

B.

Independent testers from the user community

C.

Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists

D.

Code tested by another developer from the development team

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Questions 25

What is decision table testing?

Options:

A.

It’s a testing design technique based in the internal software structure.

B.

It’s a static test design technique.

C.

It’s a testing design technique to verify decisions.

D.

It’s a testing design technique based in the system requirements.

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Questions 26

Consider the following pseudo code

1. Begin

2. Read Gender

3. __Print “Dear”

4. If Gender = ‘female’

5. Print (“Ms”)

6. Else

7. __Print ( “Mr”)

8. Endif

9. End

How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 27

From the following list, which of the following apply to experience-based techniques? [K2]

a. Test cases are derived from a model of the problem to be solved or the software

b. Test cases are derived from the knowledge of the testers

c. The knowledge of testers, developers and users is used to drive testing

d. The internal structure of the code is used to derive test cases

Options:

A.

a and b.

B.

c and d.

C.

a and d.

D.

b and c.

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Questions 28

Which type of review has the following main purposes:

discussing, making decisions, evaluating alternatives, finding defects, solving technical problems and checking conformance to specifications, plans, regulations, and standards?

Options:

A.

Technical Review

B.

Inspection

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

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Questions 29

Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?

Options:

A.

Equivalence partitioning

B.

State transition testing

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Statement coverage

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Questions 30

A live defect has been found where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it.

Which of the following tools would have been the MOST effective at detecting this defect prior to live implementation?

Options:

A.

Dynamic analysis tool

B.

Monitoring tool

C.

Configuration management tool

D.

Coverage measurement tool

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Questions 31

Which option BEST describes how the level of risk is determined?

Options:

A.

The likelihood of an adverse event happening multiplied by the cost of preventing it

B.

The consequences of a potential problem multiplied by the cost of possible legal action

C.

The impact of an adverse event multiplied by the likelihood of that event occurring

D.

The likelihood and the probability of a hazard occurring

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Questions 32

CTFL-Foundation Question 32

The decision table above reflects a golf club's pricing structure for green fees and buggy/cart hire.

What is the expected result (actions) for each of the following two test cases (TC1 and TC2)?

* TC 1 - Paul is not a full member, is a Loyalty Card holder and requests to play 18 holes with a buggy/cart

* TC 2 - Cheryl is not at full member, doesn't have a Loyalty Card and requests to play 9 holes with a buggy/cart

Options:

A.

TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

B.

TC1 - £18 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed

C.

TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed

D.

TC1 - £17 total charges but no buggy allowed; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

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Questions 33

Your company is developing a system with complex business rules and many branches in the structure of its code components. You need to choose one black box technique and one white box technique for test case design.

Which one of the following offers the BEST choice?

Options:

A.

Statement testing and exploratory testing

B.

Decision testing and equivalence partitioning

C.

Decision testing and decision table testing

D.

Boundary value analysis and decision table testing

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Questions 34

Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an operational system?

Options:

A.

Data migration

B.

System retirement

C.

System modification

D.

Introduction of a test management tool

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Questions 35

Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?

Options:

A.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program

B.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process

C.

Checking that all calls from one program module to another have been made correctly

D.

Checking that at least 50% of decisions have been exercised by a test case suite

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Questions 36

Which of the following would NOT be a common metric used for monitoring test preparation and execution?

Options:

A.

Number of Test cases passed and failed

B.

Percentage of planned test cases designed

C.

Number of test plan review comments

D.

Percentage of tasks complete in test environment preparation

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Questions 37

Which of the following would you NOT expect to see on an incident report from test execution?

Options:

A.

The version(s) of the software under test

B.

The test execution schedule

C.

Expected results and actual results

D.

Precise steps to reproduce the problem

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Questions 38

During the development of a software change for a system, the developer makes a mistake in his work, which leads to a fault in the code. Unfortunately the fault is not found by software testing and is released into live.

What is the definite consequence of this mistake?

Options:

A.

The system will fail, causing a defect

B.

If the defect is executed, the system may fail

C.

Loss of money, time, or business reputation

D.

Contractual requirements have not been met by testing

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Questions 39

Which of the following is a white-box test technique?

Options:

A.

Decision table testing

B.

Exploratory testing

C.

Statement testing

D.

Error guessing

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Questions 40

Which of the following would achieve the HIGHEST level of testing independence for a project's test level?

Options:

A.

Training developers to design good tests for the test team to execute

B.

Outsourcing test design and execution to a different company

C.

Having the company's independent test team design and execute the tests

D.

Minimising contact between testers and developers during test design to avoid bias

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Questions 41

During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?

Options:

A.

Test Implementation and Execution

B.

Test Planning and Control

C.

Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting

D.

Test Analysis and Design

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Questions 42

Which of the following would be a good test technique to use when under severe time pressure?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Structure based testing

C.

Specification based testing

D.

Use Case testing

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Questions 43

A booking system for a city bus service prices its fares according to the time of travel:

• Peak-time tariff starts at 0600 and finishes at 1000 am

• Off-peak tariff applies during all other times of service

• The bus service does not operate between 2300 and the start of the next day’s peak service

Note that all times mentioned are inclusive.

When applying the equivalence partitioning test design technique, which of the following options, shows test case inputs that each fall into a different equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

0600, 1000, 1200

B.

1001, 1300, 2259

C.

0100, 0800, 2200

D.

2400, 1000, 2301

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Questions 44

A system is being enhanced to simplify screen navigation for users.

Which of the following does NOT reflect structural testing?

Options:

A.

To test all paths that users could take through the screen menu system

B.

To ensure that 100% decision testing is achieved for each system component

C.

To test all branches of component calls within the application call graph

D.

To ensure that users can navigate to all fields on the screen

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Questions 45

Which of the following type of defect would NOT be typically found by using a static analysis tool?

Options:

A.

A variable is defined but is then not used

B.

A variable is used in a calculation before it is defined

C.

A variable has the wrong numeric value passed into it

D.

A variable is used but not declared

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Questions 46

The following Test Cases have been created for a simple web-based airline booking system.

Test Case 1: Search for an item Available Flights

Test Case 2: View selected item in My Flights

Test Case 3: Login to the system: Login is accepted

Test Case 4: Select an available flight: item added to My Flights

Test Case 5: Print confirmation receipt, then exit

Test Case 6: In My Flights, confirm details and book flight

Which of the following is the correct logical order for the test cases?

Options:

A.

6, 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

B.

3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 6

C.

3, 2, 1, 4, 6, 5

D.

3, 1, 4, 2, 6, 5

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Questions 47

A garden irrigation system allows the user to specify 2 inputs:

1. Frequency - The number of times the system should be automatically switched on per day; minimum once per day, maximum 5 times

2. Duration - The duration of operation, in whole minutes, each time it is switched on; ranging from 1 to 60

Applying 2-value boundary value analysis which of the following options has the correct test set of valid and invalid boundary values?

Options:

A.

Frequency 1, 5; Duration 1, 60

B.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 59 seconds, 1 minute, 60 minutes, 60 minutes 1 second

C.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

D.

Frequency 0, 1, 2, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

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Questions 48

Why is measurement of code coverage Important?

Options:

A.

Because 100% code coverage implies 100% coverage of requirements

B.

Because 100% code coverage guarantees that there are no coding errors

C.

Because code coverage can be used to ensure that all code is exercised by tests

D.

Because code coverage can ensure that all decisions are correctly implemented in the code

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Questions 49

Which of the following options explain why it is often beneficial to have an independent test function in an organisation?

Options:

A.

To improve defect finding during reviews and testing

B.

To ensure that developers adhere to coding standards

C.

To limit communication between developers and testers

D.

To provide better metrics for the stakeholders

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Questions 50

You are examining a document which gives the precise steps needed in order to execute a test.

What is the correct definition of this document?

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Test condition

C.

Test procedure specification

D.

Test case specification

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Questions 51

A new testing tool has been selected for an organisation and a pilot project has successfully completed. The next step is to deploy the tool within the organization.

What is a key success factor in tool deployment?

Options:

A.

Estimate a cost-benefit ratio based on a firm business case

B.

Determine whether benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost

C.

Provide support for the test team using the tool

D.

Assessment of organisational maturity, strengths and weaknesses

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Questions 52

When can functional and structural testing BOTH be applied?

Options:

A.

System and Component test levels only

B.

All 'Developement' test levels, i.e. those before Acceptance testing

C.

Component and Component integration test levels only

D.

All test levels

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Questions 53

A system requirement states that up to 100 users should be able to carry out a transaction, with responses returned within 5 seconds.

What type of non-functional testing would you carry out to verify these requirements?

Options:

A.

Stress testing

B.

Maintenance testing

C.

Load testing

D.

Usability testing

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Questions 54

Which of the following optionsBESTexplain the pesticide paradox principle of testing?

Options:

A.

If we do not regularly review and revise our tests, we'll stop finding defects

B.

Repeatedly running a set of tests will ensure that a system is defect free

C.

Defects are, paradoxically, often contained in a small number of modules

D.

Testing, like spraying pesticide, is an effective bug / defect removal activity

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Questions 55

Maintenance testing is:

Options:

A.

updating tests when the software has changed

B.

testing a released system that has been changed

C.

testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need

D.

testing to maintain business advantage

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Questions 56

Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?

Options:

A.

Testing pinpoints (identifies the source of) the defects. Debugging analyzes the faults and proposes prevention activities.

B.

Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software.

C.

Testing removes faults. Debugging identifies the causes of failures.

D.

Dynamic testing prevents causes of failures. Debugging removes the failures.

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Questions 57

Which is not the testing objective?

Options:

A.

Finding defects

B.

Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information

C.

Preventing defects.

D.

Debugging defects

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Questions 58

For which of the following activities in the fundamental test process would an incident management tool be most useful?

Options:

A.

Test planning and control

B.

Test analysis and design

C.

Test implementation and execution

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

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Questions 59

Which of the following statements are true?

(i) Defects are likely to be found earlier in the development process by using reviews rather than static analysis.

(ii) Walkthroughs require code but static analysis does not require code.

(iii) Informal reviews can be performed on code and specifications.

(iv) Dynamic techniques are generally used before static techniques.

(v) Dynamic techniques can only be used after code is ready to be executed.

Options:

A.

(i), (ii), (vi).

B.

(ii), (iii), (v).

C.

(i), (iv), (v).

D.

(i), (iii), (v).

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Questions 60

What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing..?

Options:

A.

Use automation tool for testing

B.

Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested

C.

Both a and b

D.

None of the above

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Questions 61

Statement Coverage will not check for the following:

Options:

A.

Missing Statements

B.

Unused Branches

C.

Dead Code

D.

Unused Statement

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Questions 62

Which of the following are the most important factors to be taken into account when selecting test techniques?

(i) Tools available.

(ii) Regulatory standards.

(iii) Experience of the development team.

(iv) Knowledge of the test team.

The need to maintain levels of capability in each technique.

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(ii) and (iv)

C.

(iii) and (iv)

D.

(i) and (v)

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Questions 63

Which of the following is not true of regression testing?

Options:

A.

It can be carried out at each stage of the life cycle.

B.

It serves to demonstrate that the changed software works as intended.

C.

It serves to demonstrate that software has not been unintentionally changed.

D.

It is often automated.

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Questions 64

Which option is part of the ‘implementation and execution’ area of the fundamental test process?

Options:

A.

Developing the tests.

B.

Comparing actual and expected results.

C.

Writing a test summary.

D.

Analyzing lessons learnt for future releases.

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Questions 65

Tests are prioritized so that:

Options:

A.

You shorten the time required for testing

B.

You do the best testing in the time available

C.

You do more effective testing

D.

You find more faults

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Questions 66

Which of the following is the task of a Tester?

i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.

ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data

iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.

iv. Create the Test Specifications

Options:

A.

i, ii, iii is true and iv is false

B.

ii, iii, iv is true and i is false

C.

i is true and ii, iii, iv are false

D.

iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

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Questions 67

Security falls under..?

Options:

A.

compliance testing

B.

disaster testing

C.

verifying compliance to rules

D.

functional testing

E.

ease of operations

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Questions 68

Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

Options:

A.

Test Analysis and Design

B.

Test Implementation and execution

C.

Test Closure Activities

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

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Questions 69

A software component has the code shown below:

Program BiggestA,

Biggest: Integer

Begin

Read A

Biggest = 10

While A > 0

Do

If A > Biggest

Then Biggest = A

Endif

Read A

Enddo

End

The component has exit criteria for component testing that include 100% statement coverage. Which of the following test cases will satisfy this criterion?

Options:

A.

0

B.

10, 0

C.

10, 5, 0

D.

10, 11, 0

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Questions 70

The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

Options:

A.

Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects

B.

Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests

C.

Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier

D.

Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment

E.

Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

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Questions 71

Which of the following statements describes a key principle of software testing?

Options:

A.

Automated tests allow better statements of confidence about the quality of software products.

B.

For a software system, it is normally impossible to test all the input and output combinations.

C.

Exhaustive software testing is, with enough effort and tool support, feasible for all software.

D.

The purpose of software testing is demonstrating the absence of defects in software products.

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Questions 72

How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment?

Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -if (Condition 1)then statement 1else statement 2if (Condition 2)then statement 3

Options:

A.

2 Test Cases

B.

3 Test Cases

C.

4 Test Cases

D.

Not achievable

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Questions 73

A top-down development strategy affects which level of testing most?

Options:

A.

Component testing

B.

Integration testing

C.

System testing

D.

User acceptance testing

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Questions 74

Code Coverage is used as a measure of what?

Options:

A.

Defects

B.

Trends analysis

C.

Test Effectiveness

D.

Time Spent Testing

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Questions 75

What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing forworld wide web sites ..?

Options:

A.

Interaction between html pages

B.

Performance on the client side

C.

Security aspects

D.

All of the above

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Questions 76

Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?

Options:

A.

Top down

B.

Big-bang

C.

Bottom up

D.

Functional incrementation.

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Questions 77

What is important to do when working with software development models?

Options:

A.

To adapt the models to the context of project and product characteristics.

B.

To choose the waterfall model because it is the first and best proven model.

C.

To start with the V-model and then move to either iterative or incremental models.

D.

To only change the organization to fit the model and not vice versa.

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Questions 78

What is retesting?

Options:

A.

Running the same test again in the same circumstances to reproduce the problem.

B.

A cursory run through a test pack to see if any new errors have been introduced.

C.

Checking that the predetermined exit criteria for the test phase have been met.

D.

Running a previously failed test against new software/data/documents to see if the problem is solved.

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Questions 79

What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?

Options:

A.

to know when a specific test has finished its execution

B.

to ensure that the test case specification is complete

C.

to set the criteria used in generating test inputs

D.

to determine when to stop testing

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Questions 80

In the MASPAR case study..?

Options:

A.

Security failures were the result of untested parts of code

B.

The development team achieved complete statement and branch coverage but missed a serious bug in the MASPAR operating system

C.

An error in the code was so obscure that you had to test the function with almost every input value to find its two special-case failures

D.

All the above

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Questions 81

Independent Verification & Validation is:

Options:

A.

Done by the Developer

B.

Done by the Test Engineers

C.

Done By Management

D.

Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence

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Exam Code: CTFL-Foundation
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level
Last Update: Nov 16, 2024
Questions: 272

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