CS0-002 CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam (CS0-002) Questions and Answers

SQLi stands for SQL injection, which is a type of attack that injects malicious SQL statements into a web application’s input fields or parameters. The attacker can use SQLi to execute unauthorized commands on the database server, such as adding a new user or retrieving sensitive data. The entry in the server logs shows an example of a SQLi attack that tries to add a new user named attacker with the password 1337password. CSRF, XSS, and RCE are other types of attacks, but they do not match the description of the entry in the server logs. Reference: https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/SQL_Injection

The grep command is a tool that searches for a pattern of characters in a file or input and prints the matching lines1 The egrep command is a variant of grep that supports extended regular expressions, which allow more complex and flexible pattern matching2 The more command is a filter that displays the contents of a file or input one screen at a time3 The pipe symbol (|) is used to redirect the output of one command to the input of another command. The redirection symbol (>) is used to redirect the output of a command to a file.

The command given in option C performs the following steps:

• It uses the more command to display the contents of the webserver.log file.
• It pipes the output of the more command to the grep command, which searches for lines that contain ‘*.xls’, which is a pattern that matches any file name ending with .xls (a spreadsheet file extension).
• It pipes the output of the grep command to the egrep command, which searches for lines that contain ‘return=200’, which is a pattern that matches any HTTP status code of 200 (which indicates a successful request).
• It redirects the output of the egrep command to a file named accessreport.txt, which contains the date, time, and IP address associated with any spreadsheet downloads.

Kitten and Jackal are two APT (Advanced Persistent Threat) adversary archetypes that represent non-nation-state threat actors. APT adversary archetypes are categories of threat actors that share common characteristics, such as motivation, objectives, capabilities, or tactics. APT adversary archetypes can help security analysts understand and prioritize the threats they face2. Kitten is a term used to describe Iranian-based threat actors that are typically not backed by the Iranian government. They are motivated by ideological or religious beliefs and target political or regional adversaries3. Jackal is a term used to describe cybercriminal groups that operate as mercenaries or proxies for other threat actors. They are motivated by financial gain and target various sectors and regions.

The CySA+ exam outline calls out “trusted firmware updates,” but trusted firmware itself is more commonly described as part of trusted execution environments (TEEs). Trusted firmware is signed by a chip vendor or other trusted party, and then used to access keys to help control access to hardware. TEEs like those used by ARM processors leverage these technologies to protect the hardware by preventing unsigned code from using privileged features."

Trusted firmware updates provide organizations with secure code signing, distribution, installation, and attestation for embedded devices. Embedded devices are devices that have a dedicated function and are part of a larger system or network, such as routers, cameras, sensors, etc. Embedded devices often run on firmware, which is a type of software that controls the device’s hardware and functionality. Firmware updates are essential for improving the performance, security, and reliability of embedded devices. However, firmware updates also pose risks of introducing vulnerabilities or malware into the devices if they are not properly secured. Trusted firmware updates are firmware updates that use cryptographic techniques to ensure the integrity, authenticity, and confidentiality of the firmware code and data. Trusted firmware updates typically involve four steps1:

• Code signing: The firmware code is digitally signed by the firmware developer or provider using a private key. The digital signature proves that the firmware code is from a trusted source and has not been tampered with.
• Distribution: The signed firmware code is securely transmitted to the embedded device or a trusted intermediary (such as a cloud service or a gateway) using encryption or other methods. The transmission ensures that the firmware code is not intercepted or modified by unauthorized parties.
• Installation: The embedded device verifies the digital signature of the firmware code using a public key that is stored in a secure location (such as a trusted platform module or TPM). The verification ensures that the firmware code is from a trusted source and has not been tampered with. The embedded device then installs the firmware code and reboots to apply the update.
• Attestation: The embedded device reports its firmware status and configuration to a trusted verifier (such as a cloud service or a gateway) using a cryptographic proof. The proof ensures that the embedded device has installed the correct firmware update and has not been compromised.

Trusted firmware updates provide organizations with several benefits for hardware assurance, such as2:

• Preventing unauthorized or malicious firmware updates that could compromise the security or functionality of embedded devices
• Detecting and mitigating firmware attacks or incidents that could affect the availability or performance of embedded devices
• Complying with regulatory or industry standards or best practices for firmware security
• Enhancing customer trust and satisfaction with embedded devices

Trusted firmware updates do not provide organizations with development, compilation, remote access, or customization for embedded devices (A), as these are software engineering tasks that are not directly related to firmware security. Trusted firmware updates do not provide organizations with security specifications, open-source libraries, or custom tools for embedded devices (B), as these are software resources that are not directly related to firmware security. Trusted firmware updates do not provide organizations with remote code execution, distribution, maintenance, or extended warranties for embedded devices ©, as these are software features or services that are not directly related to firmware security.

References: 1: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24771/technical-controls  2: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/25888/security-development-lifecycle-sdl

Encapsulated traffic may evade security monitoring and defenses by hiding or obfuscating the actual content or source of the traffic. Encapsulation is a technique that wraps data packets with additional headers or protocols to enable communication across different network types or layers. Encapsulation can be used for legitimate purposes, such as tunneling, VPNs, or NAT, but it can also be used by attackers to bypass security controls or detection mechanisms that are not able to inspect or analyze the encapsulated traffic .

IaC stands for infrastructure as code, which is a practice of using code or configuration files to automate the provisioning and management of cloud resources. IaC templates can help ensure consistency, repeatability, and scalability of cloud deployments, as well as reduce human errors and misconfigurations. However, IaC templates need to be validated and tested before deployment, and any changes to the templates should be controlled and monitored. This can help minimize the occurrence of vulnerabilities introduced by unintentional misconfigurations in the cloud

Reporting this activity as a false positive, as the activity is legitimate, is the best way for the security analyst to respond. A false positive is a condition in which harmless traffic is classified as a potential network attack by a security monitoring tool. Ping requests are a common network diagnostic tool that can be used to test network connectivity issues. The technician who responded to potential network connectivity issues was performing a legitimate task and did not pose any threat to the accounting and human resources servers .

CAN bus (Controller Area Network) is a vehicle bus standard designed to allow microcontrollers and devices to communicate with each other’s applications without a host computer1. CAN bus is a message-based protocol, designed originally for multiplex electrical wiring within automobiles to save on copper, but it can also be used in many other contexts. CAN bus enables each device to send and receive data on a shared network, reducing the need for complex wiring and increasing reliability and performance. CAN bus is one of the five protocols used in the on-board diagnostics (OBD)-II vehicle diagnostics standard. A vulnerability within the new fleet of vehicles that the company recently purchased is most likely targeting CAN bus, as it is a common and critical communication system in modern vehicles. An attacker could exploit a vulnerability in CAN bus to compromise or manipulate various vehicle functions or systems, such as braking, steering, engine control, airbags, etc. SCADA (A) stands for Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition, which is a system that monitors and controls industrial processes or infrastructure2. SCADA is not a vehicle bus standard and is not likely to be targeted by a vulnerability within a fleet of vehicles. Modbus © is a serial communications protocol that connects industrial electronic devices3. Modbus is not a vehicle bus standard and is not likely to be targeted by a vulnerability within a fleet of vehicles. IoT (D) stands for Internet of Things, which is a network of physical objects that are embedded with sensors, software, and other technologies to connect and exchange data with other devices and systems over the internet. IoT is not a vehicle bus standard and is not likely to be targeted by a vulnerability within a fleet of vehicles.

References: 1: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24771/technical-controls  2: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/25888/security-development-lifecycle-sdl  3: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/31686/resource-exhaustion : https://www.techopedia.com/definition/13493/penetration-testing

nslookup is a command-line tool that can query the Domain Name System (DNS) and display information about domain names and IP addresses. The security analyst can use nslookup to find out the IP address of the malicious domain accountfix-office365.com that was used in the phishing attempt. This could help the analyst to block or trace the source of the attack. telnet, tracert, and curl are other command-line tools, but they are not as useful as nslookup for investigating a phishing attempt based on a domain name. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/nslookup

 The first step the analyst should take to prevent further spread of the mining operation is to quarantine all the impacted hosts for forensic analysis. Quarantining the hosts can help isolate them from the network, and prevent them from communicating with other devices or servers that may be part of the mining operation. Forensic analysis can help identify the source and scope of the infection, and provide clues for remediation and recovery.

A custom script is a piece of code that can be written to perform a specific task or automate a process. A custom script can be used to gather patch information on a specific server by querying the server’s operating system, registry, or patch management software and retrieving the relevant data. A custom script can be more flexible and efficient than other methods, such as Event Viewer, SCAP software, or CI/CD, which may not provide the exact information needed or may require additional steps or tools.

The security analyst should review the IDS rule set first. The IDS (Intrusion Detection System) is a tool that monitors network traffic and alerts on any suspicious or malicious activity. The IDS rule set is a set of conditions or patterns that define what constitutes normal or abnormal behavior on the network. The IDS rule set can affect the number of security incidents being reported, as it determines what triggers an alert or not3. The security analyst should review the IDS rule set to check if it is up to date, accurate, and comprehensive. If the IDS rule set is outdated, inaccurate, or incomplete, it may miss some incidents or generate false positives or negatives.

 Indicator enrichment and research pivoting are steps in the threat intelligence process that involve gathering additional information and context about the indicators of compromise (IoCs) that are related to an incident, and using them to identify other potential sources of threat data or evidence. For example, an analyst can enrich an IoC such as an IP address by looking up its geolocation, reputation, or associated domains, and then pivot to other sources of threat intelligence that may have more information about the IP address or its activities.

Resource exhaustion occurs when a system runs out of resources such as memory, CPU, disk space, or network bandwidth due to excessive demand or poor management1. In this case, the server statistics show that the CPU usage is 100%, the memory usage is 99%, and the disk usage is 98%, indicating that the system is suffering from resource exhaustion. This can affect the performance and availability of the system and its applications. A race condition (A) is a condition where the system’s behavior depends on the sequence or timing of other uncontrollable events2. Privilege escalation (B) is a situation where an attacker gains unauthorized access to higher privileges or permissions on a system3. VM escape (D) is a technique where an attacker breaks out of a virtual machine and interacts with the host operating system.

References: 1: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/31686/resource-exhaustion  2: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Race_condition  3: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/4111/privilege-escalation : https://www.techopedia.com/definition/32088/vm-escape

A CASB, or Cloud Access Security Broker, is a software tool or service that acts as an intermediary between an organization’s cloud services and its users. A CASB can provide various security functions, such as visibility, compliance, threat protection, and data security2 A CASB can help protect the company’s data stored in the cloud by preventing certain types of data from being downloaded to a workstation, such as sensitive or confidential information. This can reduce the risk of data leakage, theft, or loss if a workstation is compromised or stolen.

The security analyst should review the known Apache vulnerabilities to determine if a compromise actually occurred. The SIEM alert indicates that an IDS signature detected an attempt to exploit a vulnerability in Apache Struts 2 (CVE-2017-5638), which allows remote code execution via a crafted Content-Type header4. The packet capture and TCP stream show that the attacker sent a malicious request with a Content-Type header containing an OGNL expression that executes the command “whoami” on the target server. However, this does not necessarily mean that the attack was successful, as it depends on whether the target server was running a vulnerable version of Apache Struts 2 or not. Therefore, the security analyst should review the known Apache vulnerabilities and compare them with the version of Apache Struts 2 running on the server to confirm if a compromise actually occurred or not.

The correct answer is B. Extract the server’s system timeline, verifying hashes and network connections during a certain time frame. A system timeline is a chronological record of the events and activities that occurred on a system, such as file creation, modification, or deletion, process execution, registry changes, or network connections. A system timeline can help an analyst to understand how an attacker compromised a server by showing the sequence of actions and artifacts left by the attacker. An analyst can also verify the hashes of the files and processes involved in the compromise and compare them with known malware signatures or databases. Additionally, an analyst can check the network connections made by the server during the compromise and identify the source and destination IP addresses, ports, and protocols used by the attacker1.

Industrial control systems (ICS) are systems that monitor and control physical processes, such as power generation, water treatment, manufacturing, and transportation. ICS are often critical for public safety and national security, and therefore a prime target for cyberattacks. One of the greatest security concerns regarding ICS is that issues on the systems cannot be reversed without rebuilding the systems. This means that any damage or disruption caused by an attack can have long-lasting and catastrophic consequences for the physical infrastructure and human lives. The other options are not true or not specific to ICS. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 13; https://www.us-cert.gov/ics/What-are-Industrial-Control-Systems

A Windows domain controller is a server that manages authentication and authorization for users and computers in a Windows domain. A Windows domain controller uses Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) to store information about users, groups, computers, policies, and other objects in a domain. A Windows domain controller can generate event logs that record various activities and events related to security, system, application, etc. The event log shown in the question indicates that it was generated by a Windows domain controller with an IP address of 10.0.0.1 and a hostname of DC01.

A directory traversal attack is a type of web application attack that exploits insufficient input validation or improper configuration to access files or directories that are outside the intended scope of the web server. The log entries given in the question show several requests that contain “…/” sequences in the URL, which indicate an attempt to move up one level in the directory structure. For example, the request “/images/…/…/etc/passwd” tries to access the /etc/passwd file, which contains user account information on Linux systems. If successful, this attack could allow an attacker to read, modify, or execute files on the web server that are not meant to be accessible.

Requests sent from the same IP address using different user agents are likely to be malicious or suspicious, as they indicate that an attacker is trying to evade detection or bypass security controls by changing their browser or device identification. These requests may indicate that an attacker is using automated tools or scripts to scan or attack the web server.

Requests identified by a threat intelligence service with a bad reputation are also likely to be malicious or suspicious, but they are not the source of the activity, as they originate from different IP addresses. These requests may indicate that an attacker is trying to exploit a vulnerability or perform reconnaissance on the web server.

Requests blocked by the web server per the input sanitization are not likely to be the source of the activity, as they indicate that the web server has successfully prevented an attack by validating and filtering any malicious input from the requests. These requests may indicate that an attacker is trying to inject malicious code or commands into the web server.

Failed log-in attempts against the web application are not likely to be the source of the activity, as they indicate that the web application has successfully prevented unauthorized access by verifying and rejecting any invalid credentials from the requests. These requests may indicate that an attacker is trying to guess or brute-force passwords or usernames for the web application.

Requests sent by NICs with outdated firmware are not likely to be the source of the activity, as they indicate that some devices on the network have not been updated with the latest security patches or features for their network interface cards (NICs). These requests may indicate that some devices are vulnerable to network attacks or have performance issues.

Existence of HTTP/501 status codes generated to the same IP address are not likely to be the source of the activity, as they indicate that the web server has encountered an error or does not support a request method from the client. These requests may indicate that an attacker is trying to use an invalid or unsupported method to access the web server.

The Controller Area Network - CAN bus is a message-based protocol designed to allow the Electronic Control Units (ECUs) found in today’s automobiles, as well as other devices, to communicate with each other in a reliable, priority-driven fashion. Messages or “frames” are received by all devices in the network, which does not require a host computer.

CAN bus stands for Controller Area Network bus, which is a communication protocol that allows different devices and components in a vehicle to communicate and exchange data. The vulnerability within the new fleet of vehicles is most likely targeting the CAN bus, because it could allow an attacker to manipulate or disrupt the operation of the vehicle. SCADA, Modbus, and IoT are other terms related to communication protocols or systems, but they are not specific to vehicles. Reference: https://www.csoonline.com/article/3218104/what-is-a-can-bus-and-how-can-it-be-hacked.html

The vulnerability scan report shows that the workstation has a high-risk vulnerability (CVE-2019-0708) that affects Remote Desktop Services on Windows systems. This vulnerability allows remote code execution without authentication or user interaction, and can be exploited by sending specially crafted requests to the target system1 As part of the detection and analysis procedures, the analyst should confirm the workstation’s signatures against the most current signatures. This can help verify if the workstation has been patched or updated to address the vulnerability, or if it is still vulnerable and needs remediation. The analyst can use tools such as Windows Update or Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer to check the workstation’s patch level and compare it with the latest available signatures.

Anti-tamper is a process that protects a system or device from unauthorized changes or modifications. It can also log and report any attempts to alter the system or device. The company is using anti-tamper to ensure the appliance is not altered from its original configured state. CI/CD, software assurance, and change management are not processes that specifically deal with unauthorized changes. Reference: https://www.acq.osd.mil/se/briefs/16943-DoD-AT-Overview-Brief.pdf

Threat intelligence is a collection and analysis of information about current and emerging threats and vulnerabilities that affect an organization’s assets and operations. Threat intelligence can help to guide risk evaluation activities by providing context, prioritization and recommendations for mitigating firmware vulnerabilities. For example, threat intelligence can help to identify which firmware vulnerabilities are actively exploited in the wild, which ones have high severity or impact, and which ones have available patches or workarounds. Implementing critical updates after proper testing can help to ensure that the firmware updates are trusted, compatible and effective. Testing can help to verify the integrity and authenticity of the firmware updates, as well as their compatibility with the existing system configuration and functionality. Testing can also help to identify any issues or conflicts that may arise from applying the firmware updates and resolve them before deployment12.

Logical segmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller, isolated segments based on logical criteria, such as function, role, or application. Logical segmentation can be implemented using various technologies, such as VLANs, subnets, virtual firewalls, or software-defined networking (SDN). Logical segmentation can enhance the security of a network by reducing the attack surface, limiting the lateral movement of threats, enforcing the principle of least privilege, and facilitating the monitoring and auditing of network traffic12.

Firewall is a device or software that filters and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules or policies. Firewall can be deployed at the network perimeter or within the network to create internal zones or segments. Firewall can protect a network from unauthorized access, malicious attacks, or data exfiltration by allowing or blocking traffic based on the source, destination, port, protocol, or application3 .

To best provide the protection that meets the requirements of the security engineer, each product line should be logically segmented and firewalled to control inbound and outbound connectivity. This way, each product line can be secured using a single posture that is consistent and manageable. Each product line can also communicate with the other lines in a least privilege method by allowing only the necessary traffic and blocking the rest. Access to each product line from the rest of the network can be strictly controlled by applying firewall rules that restrict or limit the traffic based on the business needs.

DLP (Data Loss Prevention) is what the CISO wants to purchase. DLP is a solution that prevents unauthorized or accidental disclosure of sensitive data by monitoring, detecting, and blocking data transfers or downloads that violate predefined policies or rules3. DLP can also track and classify data assets based on various criteria, such as name, type, content, or data profile4. DLP can help protect data from insider threats, external attackers, or human errors.

Investing in a failover and redundant system, as necessary, is the best solution to improve the availability of the organization’s systems based on past incidents. A failover system is a backup system that automatically takes over the operation of a primary system in case of a failure or outage. A redundant system is a duplicate system that runs simultaneously with the primary system and provides backup functionality if needed. Investing in a failover and redundant system can help to ensure that the organization’s systems are always available and can handle the workload without interruption or degradation .

SCAP is a protocol designed to assess the security compliance of computers and other devices. It works by scanning systems against security policies, and can help verify that the scanned device meets security requirements. Here is a link to the CompTIA CySA+ Guide's Chapter 5 - Access Controls for more information: https://certification.comptia.org/docs/default-source/exam-objectives/cs0-002.pdf

System timeline reconstruction is a forensic analysis technique that involves creating a chronological record of events that occurred on a system based on various sources of evidence such as log files, registry entries, file timestamps, network traffic, etc. System timeline reconstruction can provide information about when and how the machine was compromised and where the malware is located by showing when suspicious activities or changes took place on the system, such as unauthorized access attempts, file creation or modification, process execution, network connections, etc.

Scanning the network is what the user is attempting to do based on the log entries. The log entries show that the user is sending ping requests to various IP addresses on different ports using a proxy server. Ping requests are a common network diagnostic tool that can be used to test network connectivity and latency by sending packets of data and measuring their response time. However, ping requests can also be used by attackers to scan the network and discover active hosts, open ports, or potential vulnerabilities .

MFA can be used to reduce the likelihood that the attacker gains access to the VM, however, the scenario specifically states that the attacker was able to escalate rights and the question asks what can be done to remediate the vulnerability. the vulnerability in this case would be the ability to escalate rights.

The best way to remediate the vulnerability is to update to the secure hypervisor version. A hypervisor is a software that creates and manages virtual machines on a physical server. A hypervisor can be vulnerable to various attacks, such as privilege escalation, code injection, or denial-of-service. Updating to the secure hypervisor version can help fix any known bugs or flaws in the hypervisor software and prevent attackers from exploiting them. Updating to the secure hypervisor version can also provide additional security features or enhancements that can improve the protection of the virtual machines and their data.

Regularly use SHA-256 to hash the directory containing the sensitive information. Monitor the files for unauthorized changes. This option is the best technique to ensure the integrity of the files and tie any changes to a specific user session. Hashing is a process that generates a unique value for a given input, and any modification to the input will result in a different hash value. By using SHA-256, which is a secure hashing algorithm, the analyst can compare the hash values of the files before and after each user session and detect any unauthorized changes.

This command would most likely indicate if the email attachment is malicious, as it would display any JavaScript code embedded in the PDF file. JavaScript code can be used by attackers to execute malicious commands or scripts on the victim’s system when the PDF file is opened1. The strings command extracts the printable characters from a binary file, such as a PDF file, and the grep -i “<script” option searches for the presence of JavaScript code in a case-insensitive manner2.

Credential vaulting is a solution that would best satisfy the organization’s goal of implementing a privileged access management solution. Credential vaulting is a technique that securely stores and manages the credentials of privileged accounts, such as emergency and service accounts. Credential vaulting can help prevent unauthorized or accidental use of privileged accounts by enforcing strict access policies, such as requiring approval, authentication, or auditing for each access request. Credential vaulting can also help rotate or expire the passwords of privileged accounts to reduce the risk of compromise3.

The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is a standard for measuring the severity of vulnerabilities in software systems. One of the factors that affects the CVSS score is the attack vector, which describes how the vulnerability can be exploited. The possible values for the attack vector are network, adjacent network, local, or physical. In this case, the analyst should choose local as the value for the attack vector, because the Tomcat configuration file must be modified for the attack to be successful, which implies that the attacker needs local access to the system. Network, adjacent network, or physical are not appropriate values for the attack vector in this scenario. Reference: https://www.first.org/cvss/v3.1/specification-document#Vector-String

This is most likely occurring based on the symptoms observed after a recent sales meeting. An insider threat is a person who has legitimate access to an organization’s network or data and uses it for malicious purposes, such as stealing, leaking, or sabotaging information. The symptoms suggest that someone from the sales team or someone who attended the meeting has copied sensitive corporate documents and uploaded them to the dark web using large data packets.

Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the files or disks of a victim’s device and demands a ransom for the decryption key. Ransomware can cause significant damage, disruption, and data loss for individuals and organizations. To prevent this type of incident in the future, the best strategy is to combine user education and data protection. A ransomware awareness program can help users recognize and avoid potential ransomware attacks, such as phishing emails, malicious attachments, or compromised websites. A secure and verifiable backup system can help users recover their data in case of a ransomware infection, without paying the ransom or relying on the attackers. A backup system should be regularly tested and updated, and stored offline or in a separate location from the original data.

The correct answer is C. Machine learning. Machine learning is a branch of artificial intelligence that uses advanced mathematical techniques, such as statistics, algorithms, and linear algebra, to analyze large amounts of data and find patterns and correlations in events and activities. Machine learning can help to automate tasks, improve decision making, and enhance security by detecting anomalies, threats, or trends1.

A. Data visualization is not correct. Data visualization is the process of presenting data in a graphical or pictorial format, such as charts, graphs, maps, or dashboards. Data visualization can help to communicate information, insights, or trends more effectively and intuitively than using text or numbers alone2.

B. SOAR is not correct. SOAR stands for Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response, and it is a solution that combines various tools and processes to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of security operations. SOAR can help to automate tasks, integrate systems, coordinate actions, and respond to incidents faster and more consistently3.

D. SCAP is not correct. SCAP stands for Security Content Automation Protocol, and it is a set of standards and specifications that enable the automated assessment, measurement, and reporting of the security posture of systems and networks. SCAP can help to ensure compliance, identify vulnerabilities, and remediate issues.

1: What Is Machine Learning? 2: What Is Data Visualization? 3: What Is Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR)? : [What Is Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)?]

A security information and event management (SIEM) system is a tool that collects and analyzes log data from various sources and provides alerts and reports on security incidents and events. A SIEM system can help the IT team to determine which devices are USB enabled by querying the log data for events related to USB device insertion, removal, or usage. The other options are not relevant or effective for this purpose. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 15; https://www.sans.org/reading-room/whitepapers/analyst/security-information-event-management-siem-implementation-33969

Sanitizing the workstation and verifying countermeasures are restored are part of the eradication and recovery processes that the security analyst should perform next. Eradication is the process of removing malware or other threats from the affected systems, while recovery is the process of restoring normal operations and functionality to the affected systems. Sanitizing the workstation can involve deleting or wiping any malicious files or programs, while verifying countermeasures are restored can involve checking and updating any security controls or settings that may have been compromised .

Modbus is an industrial control system (ICS) network protocol that is used for communication between devices such as sensors, controllers, actuators, and monitors. Modbus has no inherent security functions on TCP port 502, which is the default port for Modbus TCP/IP communication. Modbus does not provide any encryption, authentication, or integrity protection for the data transmitted over the network, making it vulnerable to various attacks such as replay, modification, spoofing, or denial-of-service.

Enforcing geofencing to limit data accessibility is the best option to ensure the privacy of the data that is on its systems. Geofencing is a technique that uses GPS or RFID technology to create a virtual geographic boundary around a specific location or area. Geofencing can be used to restrict data accessibility based on the location of the device or user that tries to access it. For example, geofencing can prevent employees from accessing sensitive data when they are outside the office premises or in a different country3. Geofencing can help protect data privacy and comply with data protection regulations that may vary across regions or jurisdictions.

The single loss expectancy (SLE) is a measure of the monetary loss associated with a single occurrence of a risk. The SLE can be calculated by multiplying the asset value (AV) by the exposure factor (EF), which is the percentage of loss that the asset would suffer if the risk occurred. In this case, the asset value is the revenue generated by the service, which is $1,000. The exposure factor is the impact of the attack on the server’s capacity, which is 20%. Therefore, the SLE is $1,000 x 0.2 = $2001.

https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/Password_Spraying_Attack

A credential stuffing attack would be using the full credentials and most likely being used across many common platforms. A credential stuffing attack depends on the reuse of passwords. With so many people reusing their passwords for multiple accounts, just one set of credentials is enough to expose most or all of their accounts.

MFA stands for multi-factor authentication, which is a method of verifying a user’s identity by requiring two or more pieces of evidence, such as something the user knows (e.g., password), something the user has (e.g., token), or something the user is (e.g., fingerprint). MFA is the best control to help prevent credential stuffing attacks from being successful, because even if an attacker obtains a valid username and password from a breached site, they would still need another factor to access the target site. SIEM, IDS, and TLS are other security controls, but they are not as effective as MFA for preventing credential stuffing attacks. Reference: https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/bots/what-is-credential-stuffing/

Building the chain-of-custody document is the procedure that must be completed first for this type of evidence acquisition. The chain-of-custody document is a record that tracks the handling and custody of digital evidence from the time it is collected until it is presented in court. The chain-of-custody document should include information such as the media model, serial number, size, vendor, date, and time of acquisition, as well as the names and signatures of the persons who handled, transferred, or examined the evidence. The chain-of-custody document helps to preserve the integrity and admissibility of the evidence by preventing tampering, alteration, or loss1.

A cipher suite is a set of algorithms that defines how the encryption, authentication, and integrity of data are performed during a secure communication session. Some cipher suites are considered vulnerable or weak because they use outdated or insecure algorithms that can be easily broken or compromised by attackers. The vulnerability scan results show that the web server accepts several vulnerable cipher suites, such as RC4, MD5, or DES. The best action for the analyst to recommend to developers is to change the web server so it no longer accepts the vulnerable cipher suites and only accepts the secure ones. Changing the web server so it only accepts TLSv1.2, only accepts cipher suites using AES and SHA, or offloading SSL/TLS to a WAF and load balancer are other possible actions, but they are not as specific or effective as changing the web server so it no longer accepts the vulnerable cipher suites. Reference: https://www.acunetix.com/blog/articles/tls-ssl-cipher-hardening/

Trusted firmware updates are a method by which security packages are delivered to the company’s customers. Trusted firmware updates are digitally signed packages that contain software updates or patches for devices, such as routers, switches, or firewalls. Trusted firmware updates can help to ensure the authenticity and integrity of the packages by verifying the digital signature of the sender and preventing unauthorized or malicious modifications to the packages .

This solution is the best to accomplish the goal of blocking all non-corporate managed machines from connecting to the internal network. NAC stands for network access control, which is a method of enforcing policies and rules on network devices based on their identity, role, location, and other attributes. 802.1X is a standard for port-based network access control, which authenticates devices before granting them access to a network port or wireless access point.

Supervised and unsupervised machine-learning algorithms are two types of machine-learning methods that are used in cybersecurity applications. Machine learning is a branch of artificial intelligence that enables systems to learn from data and improve their performance without explicit programming.

Supervised machine-learning algorithms are trained on labeled data, which means that each data point has a known outcome or class. Supervised algorithms learn to map input data to output data by finding patterns or rules from the training data. Supervised algorithms require security analyst feedback to provide labels for the data and evaluate the accuracy of the algorithm’s predictions. Examples of supervised machine-learning algorithms are classification and regression.

Unsupervised machine-learning algorithms are trained on unlabeled data, which means that each data point has no known outcome or class. Unsupervised algorithms learn to discover hidden structures or patterns from the data without any guidance or feedback. Unsupervised algorithms do not require security analyst feedback, as they do not rely on predefined labels or outcomes. Examples of unsupervised machine-learning algorithms are clustering and anomaly detection.

https://legalshred.com/degaussing-vs-hard-drive-shredding/

The best and most secure method of rendering hard drive information completely unusable is to completely destroy it through hard drive shredding

Shredding is a method of physically destroying storage media files by cutting them into small pieces using a machine called a shredder. Shredding can ensure that confidential data from storage media files is sanitized so the drives cannot be reused, as it makes it impossible to recover any data from the shredded pieces.

A vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing known vulnerabilities in a system or network using automated tools or software1 A vulnerability scan can help improve the security posture of a vulnerability management program by detecting and prioritizing potential weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers. To increase the security posture of a vulnerability scan, the following actions can be taken:

• Expand the ports being scanned to include all ports: This means scanning all possible ports on a system or network, not just the well-known or commonly used ones. This can help discover more vulnerabilities that may be hidden or overlooked on less frequently used ports.
• Increase the scan interval to a number the business will accept without causing service interruption: This means scanning more frequently or regularly, but not so often that it causes performance issues or downtime for the system or network. This can help keep up with new vulnerabilities that may emerge over time and reduce the window of opportunity for attackers.
• Enable authentication and perform credentialed scans: This means using login credentials or SSH keys on an asset to get deeper access to its data, processes, configurations, and vulnerabilities2 This can help discover more vulnerabilities that cannot be seen from the network, such as insecure versions of software or poor security permissions.

Server-side input validation is a solution that can prevent cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities by checking and filtering any user input that is sent to the server before rendering it on a web page. Server-side input validation can help to ensure that the user input conforms to the expected format, length and type, and does not contain any malicious characters or syntax that may alter the logic or behavior of the web page. Server-side input validation can also reject or sanitize any input that does not meet the validation criteria .

Checking the server logs to evaluate which emails were sent to is the first action the analyst should do to evaluate the potential impact of this security incident. Server logs are records of events or activities that occur on a server, such as email transactions, web requests, or authentication attempts. Checking the server logs can help to determine how many emails were sent to , when they were sent, who sent them, and what they contained. This can help to assess the scope and severity of the incident and plan further actions .

Resource exhaustion is most likely occurring on the server. Resource exhaustion is a condition where a system runs out of resources, such as CPU, memory, disk space, or network bandwidth, due to excessive demand or consumption by one or more processes. Resource exhaustion can cause performance degradation, system instability, or denial-of-service. The server statistics show that the CPU usage is 100%, the memory usage is 99%, and the disk usage is 98%. These indicate that the server is under heavy load and has little or no resources available to handle incoming requests or perform other tasks.

Requiring support teams to develop a corrective control that ensures security failures are addressed once they are identified is the best step to prevent future issues from being remediated. Corrective controls are actions or mechanisms that are implemented after a security incident or failure has occurred to fix or restore the normal state of the system or network. Corrective controls can include patching, updating, repairing, restoring, or reconfiguring systems or components that were affected by the incident or failure .

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) reduces the amount of human intervention required, which is an advantage over SIEM (Security Information and Event Management). SIEM is a tool that collects, analyzes, and correlates data from various sources, such as logs, alerts, and events, to provide security monitoring and incident detection. SIEM can help security teams identify and prioritize potential threats, but it still requires manual intervention to investigate and respond to incidents2. SOAR is a tool that builds on SIEM by automating and orchestrating various security tasks and workflows, such as incident response, threat hunting, and threat intelligence. SOAR can help security teams reduce manual effort, improve efficiency, and accelerate incident resolution3.

A communications plan is a document that outlines who should be notified and how during an incident response. It can also specify the roles and responsibilities of the incident response team members, the escalation procedures, and the communication channels. Consulting the communications plan is the most appropriate next step in an incident response plan after determining a security incident has occurred. Consulting the malware analysis process, the disaster recovery plan, or the data classification process may be relevant at later stages of the incident response, but not as the next step. Reference: https://www.sans.org/reading-room/whitepapers/incident/incident-handlers-handbook-33901

A non-disclosure agreement (NDA) is a legally binding contract that establishes a confidential relationship between two or more parties and prevents them from sharing or using certain information that is deemed sensitive, proprietary, or valuable1. An NDA can be used to protect intellectual property (IP) such as trade secrets, inventions, designs, or business plans from being disclosed to competitors or the public2.

A company that wants to ensure a third party does not take its IP and build a competing product can use an NDA to restrict the access, use, and disclosure of its IP by the third party. For example, if the company hires a contractor to develop a software application, the company can require the contractor to sign an NDA that prohibits the contractor from copying, modifying, selling, or revealing the source code or any other details of the application to anyone else3. The NDA can also specify the duration, scope, and consequences of the confidentiality obligation.

Prowler is a tool that can scan AWS environments for security issues and compliance violations. The Prowler report shows that there are two access keys for CloudDev user: access key 1 and access key 2. Access key 1 has not been used in more than 90 days, which violates the AWS CIS benchmark 1.4 (Ensure access keys are rotated every 90 days or less). Therefore, the best recommendation is to delete access key 1 and use access key 2 instead. Deleting CloudDev access key 1, deleting BusinessUsr access key 1, or deleting access key 2 are not appropriate recommendations based on the Prowler report. Reference: https://github.com/toniblyx/prowler

A buffer overflow is an attack technique that exploits a vulnerability in a program’s memory management, by sending more data than the buffer can hold. This can cause the program to overwrite adjacent memory locations, and execute arbitrary code injected by the attacker.

The correct answer is C. Microsoft RDP is accepting connections on TCP. Microsoft RDP stands for Microsoft Remote Desktop Protocol, and it is a protocol that allows users to remotely access and control a Windows computer or server. RDP uses TCP port 3389 by default, and this port is open on the host according to the results. This indicates that the host is allowing RDP connections from anyone on the internet, which poses a security concern. An attacker could exploit vulnerabilities in RDP or use brute force attacks to gain unauthorized access to the host and compromise its data or resources1.

A. A remote communications port is exposed is not correct. A remote communications port is a generic term for any port that allows remote access or communication with a host. There are many types of remote communications ports, such as SSH, Telnet, FTP, or RDP, and each one has its own security implications. The results do not specify which remote communications port is exposed, so this answer is too vague and inaccurate.

B. The FTP port should be using TCP only is not correct. FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol, and it is a protocol that allows users to transfer files between hosts. FTP uses TCP ports 20 and 21 by default, and these ports are closed on the host according to the results. However, FTP can also use UDP ports 20 and 21 for data transfer in some cases, such as when using passive mode or extended passive mode2. Therefore, it is not true that FTP should be using TCP only, and this answer does not represent a security concern.

D. The company’s DNS server is exposed to everyone is not correct. DNS stands for Domain Name System, and it is a system that translates domain names into IP addresses. DNS uses UDP port 53 by default, and this port is open on the host according to the results. This indicates that the host is providing DNS services to anyone on the internet, which may or may not be a security concern depending on the configuration and purpose of the host. For example, if the host is a public DNS server that is intended to serve DNS queries from anyone, then this answer does not represent a security concern. However, if the host is a private DNS server that is meant to serve DNS queries only from authorized users or devices, then this answer could represent a security concern.

1: What Is Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)? 2: FTP - File Transfer Protocol : [What Is Domain Name System (DNS)?]

Modbus is a communication protocol that is widely used in industrial control systems (ICS). Modbus does not have any built-in security features, such as authentication or encryption, which makes it vulnerable to various attacks. One of the most common and effective attack techniques against Modbus assets is to send unauthenticated commands to manipulate or disrupt the operation of the devices. Remote code execution, buffer overflow, and certificate spoofing are other attack techniques, but they have less likelihood of quick success against Modbus assets. Reference: https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S2405959517300045

Volatile artifacts are data that is stored in a computer’s volatile memory while it is running, such as open network connections, running processes, encryption keys, and internet history. Volatile artifacts can provide valuable evidence for forensic investigations, especially for detecting and analyzing malware or malicious activities that do not leave traces on the hard drive. However, volatile artifacts are wiped off the system’s memory once the power is turned off, so they cannot be recovered later

The correct answer is B. Document exceptions with compensating controls to demonstrate the risk mitigation efforts. Compensating controls are alternative or additional controls that are implemented when the primary or required controls are not feasible or effective. Compensating controls can help to reduce the risk to an acceptable level and satisfy the regulatory requirements, as long as they are documented and justified1.

A. Manually review the baselines daily and document the results in a change history log is not correct. This option would not prevent the recurrence of the problem, as it does not address the root cause of why the remote units did not recover after scans were performed. Moreover, this option would create an unsustainable process, as it would require a lot of time and resources to manually review and document the baselines of all assets on a daily basis.

C. Implement a new scanning technology to satisfy the monitoring requirement and train the team is not correct. This option would not guarantee that the problem would not recur, as it is possible that the new scanning technology would also cause issues with the remote units or other assets. Furthermore, this option would incur additional costs and efforts to acquire, deploy, and maintain the new scanning technology and train the team on how to use it.

D. Purchase new remote units from other vendors with a proven ability to support scanning requirements is not correct. This option would not be feasible or cost-effective, as it would require replacing all the remote units with new ones from different vendors. This option would also introduce new risks and challenges, such as compatibility, interoperability, or vendor lock-in.

Telnet is a command-line tool that can be used to connect to a remote host on a specified port, and to send or receive data over that connection. Telnet can be used to obtain more information about the web-based services that are running on the target, by interacting with them or observing their responses. For example, telnet 10.79.95.173 443 would connect to the target on port 443, which is commonly used for HTTPS or SSL/TLS encrypted web traffic.

Pll stands for Personally Identifiable Information, and it is any data that can be used to identify, locate, or contact an individual. Examples of Pll include names, addresses, phone numbers, email addresses, social security numbers, bank account numbers, etc. The first step to secure the organization’s Pll is to identify what type of Pll is on the network, where it is stored, who has access to it, and how it is transmitted. This can help determine the scope and impact of the deficiency in the policies and procedures for Pll.

Reverse engineering is the process of analyzing a binary file without executing it, by using tools such as disassemblers, debuggers, and decompilers. Reverse engineering can help identify the functionality, behavior, and purpose of a binary file, as well as any malicious code or vulnerabilities it may contain.

Port 22 is the default port for Secure Shell (SSH), which is a protocol that allows remote access and administration of a server. If the server is dedicated to one function (web server) and unneeded services are disabled, then port 22 should be closed, because SSH is not necessary for a web server and could pose a security risk if exploited. Port 80, port 443, and port 1433 are ports that are needed for a web server, because they are used for HTTP, HTTPS, and SQL Server respectively. Reference: https://www.ssh.com/ssh/port

Data privacy policy is the organization’s policy that defines how it collects, uses, stores, and shares personal data of its customers, employees, or other stakeholders. Data privacy policy also covers how the organization complies with relevant data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA). The policy statements listed in the question are examples of data privacy policy provisions that aim to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of personal data.

Insecure application programming interfaces (APIs) can lead to data compromise when using a PaaS solution. APIs are interfaces that allow applications to communicate with each other and with the underlying platform. APIs can expose sensitive data or functionality to unauthorized or malicious users if they are not properly designed, implemented, or secured. Insecure APIs can result in data breaches, denial of service, unauthorized access, or code injection .

Option C shows a device that can perform a forensic copy of a hard drive. A forensic copy, also known as a forensic image or a bit-stream image, is an exact, unaltered digital copy of a piece of digital evidence. A forensic copy captures everything on the hard drive, including active and latent data, and preserves the integrity of the original evidence. A forensic copy can be used for forensic analysis without risking any changes to the original drive1. Option C shows a device that can connect to two hard drives and create a forensic copy from one drive to another using a write-blocker. A write-blocker is a tool that prevents any data from being written to the destination drive, ensuring that only a read-only copy is made2.

Based on the output of the “netstat -an” command, it seems that the web server is listening on port 80 for HTTP traffic and port 443 for HTTPS traffic. The anomalous traffic from 9.9.9.9 is accessing the web server on port 443, which means it is using a secure connection.

The best method to accomplish the task of restricting improper traffic from 9.9.9.9 is D. Adjusting the firewall. A firewall is a device or software that controls the flow of network traffic based on predefined rules. By adjusting the firewall rules, you can block or allow specific IP addresses, ports, protocols, or domains from accessing your web server.

Option D would provide the analyst with additional useful information relevant to the above script. Option D is a command that compares two files and shows the differences between them. In this case, the command compares the current snapshot of the system configuration (sysconfig.txt) with the previous snapshot (sysconfig.txt.old). This can help the analyst to identify any changes or anomalies in the system configuration that may indicate unauthorized or malicious activity. Option A is a command that copies a file from one location to another. In this case, the command copies the current snapshot of the system configuration (sysconfig.txt) to a backup location (/backup/sysconfig.txt). This can help the analyst to preserve evidence or restore the system configuration if needed, but it does not provide any additional information relevant to the above script. Option B is a command that prints a file to standard output. In this case, the command prints the current snapshot of the system configuration (sysconfig.txt) to the screen. This can help the analyst to review or analyze the system configuration, but it does not provide any additional information relevant to the above script. Option C is a command that moves a file from one location to another. In this case, the command moves the current snapshot of the system configuration (sysconfig.txt) to another location (/old/sysconfig.txt). This can help the analyst to organize or archive the system configuration files, but it does not provide any additional information relevant to the above script.

PII stands for personally identifiable information, and it is any data that can be used to identify, contact, or locate a specific individual, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, or biometric data. PII data is considered critical because it can be used by attackers to commit identity theft, fraud, or other crimes. PII data is also subject to various laws and regulations that require organizations to protect it from unauthorized access, use, or disclosure1.

This is the digital-forensics technique that the analyst is using by running the cat file01.bin | hexdump -c command. This command displays the contents of the binary file in hexadecimal and ASCII format, which can help identify the file type based on its header or signature. In this case, the output snippet shows that the file type is JPEG, as indicated by the ff d8 ff e0 bytes at the beginning and the JFIF string in ASCII.

The analyst should check if temporary files are being monitored first to respond to the issue. Temporary files are files that are created and used by applications for various purposes, such as storing data temporarily or caching data for faster access. However, temporary files are not meant to be permanent and are usually deleted when they are no longer needed or when the application is closed. Therefore, monitoring temporary files can generate many alerts from the file-integrity monitoring tool that are not relevant or useful for security purposes. The analyst should check if temporary files are being monitored and exclude them from the monitoring scope to reduce the number of alerts and focus on the files that should not change.

Documenting the chain of custody is an important step in the forensic analysis of any device, as it helps to ensure that all evidence is collected and preserved correctly. A memory dump is also essential, as it can provide information about the state of the device when the attack occurred and can be used for further analysis.

Documenting the respective chain of custody can help to preserve the integrity and admissibility of the evidence collected from the mobile device during the forensic analysis. Chain of custody is a record of who handled, accessed or modified the evidence, when, where, how and why . Performing a memory dump of the mobile device for analysis can help to extract volatile data from the mobile device that may contain valuable information about the ransomware attack, such as processes, network connections or encryption keys. Memory dump is a process of copying the contents of the memory (RAM) to a file or storage device .

References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/23371/chain-of-custody https://www.techopedia.com/definition/10339/memory-dump

This control would best help to reduce the number of software vulnerabilities introduced by this situation because it ensures that code quality and security standards are met before deploying to production. Senior-level developers can provide feedback, guidance, and corrections to junior-level developers and catch any errors or flaws in their code.

Secure and thorough disposal can involve deleting or wiping all data from the hardware appliances, physically destroying or shredding them, or recycling them through certified vendors or programs. Compliance with company policies can help to ensure that the disposal follows the best practices and standards for data protection and environmental responsibility .

References: : https://www.bestbuy.com/site/services/recycling/pcmcat149900050025.c?id=pcmcat149900050025 : https://www.epa.gov/recycle/electronics-donation-and-recycling : https://www.techtarget.com/searchdatacenter/tip/A-6-step-guide-for-hardware-disposal

A hash is a mathematical function that produces a unique value for a given input. A hash can be used to verify that a bit-level image copy of a hard drive is an exact clone of the original hard drive by comparing the hash values of both drives. If the hash values match, then the drives are identical. If the hash values differ, then there is some discrepancy between the drives. Inserting the hard drive on a test computer and booting the computer, recording the serial numbers of both hard drives, or comparing the file-directory listing of both hard drives are not reliable methods to verify that a bit-level image copy of a hard drive is an exact clone of the original hard drive. Reference: https://www.forensicswiki.org/wiki/Hashing

The correct answer is A. Cloud WAF. A cloud WAF stands for a cloud-based web application firewall, and it is a service that protects web applications from common attacks, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, or denial-of-service. A cloud WAF can inspect and filter HTTP requests and responses between the web application and the internet, and block or allow them based on predefined or custom rules. A cloud WAF can also generate logs with details regarding the threat actor’s requests, such as the source IP address, the destination URL, the payload, the rule triggered, and the action taken1.

B. Internal proxy is not correct. An internal proxy is a server that acts as an intermediary between internal clients and external servers. An internal proxy can provide various functions, such as caching, filtering, authentication, or encryption. An internal proxy can also generate logs with details regarding the client’s requests, such as the source IP address, the destination URL, the protocol used, and the response received2. However, an internal proxy would not have logs with details regarding the threat actor’s requests, as they are directed to the web application, not to the internal proxy.

C. TAXII server is not correct. TAXII stands for Trusted Automated eXchange of Intelligence Information, and it is a standard that defines how to exchange cyber threat intelligence (CTI) between different systems or organizations. TAXII uses a client-server model, where a TAXII client can request or send CTI to a TAXII server using predefined services and messages. A TAXII server can store and provide CTI in a structured and standardized format3. However, a TAXII server would not have logs with details regarding the threat actor’s requests, as they are not related to CTI exchange.

D. Hardware security module is not correct. A hardware security module (HSM) is a physical device that provides secure storage and processing of cryptographic keys and operations. An HSM can protect sensitive data and transactions, such as encryption, decryption, signing, or verification, from unauthorized access or tampering. However, an HSM would not have logs with details regarding the threat actor’s requests, as they are not related to cryptographic operations.

1: What Is a Cloud-Based Web Application Firewall (WAF)? 2: What Is a Proxy Server? 3: What Is TAXII? : [What Is a Hardware Security Module (HSM)?]

 The security analyst should implement a control that uses built-in functions from libraries to check and handle long numbers properly. This will help prevent integer overflow vulnerabilities, which occur when a value is moved into a variable type too small to hold it. For example, if an integer variable can only store values up to 255, and a value of 256 is assigned to it, the variable will overflow and wrap around to 0. This can cause unexpected program behavior or lead to buffer overflow vulnerabilities if the overflowed value is used as an index or size for memory allocation1. Built-in functions from libraries can help avoid integer overflow by performing checks on the input values and the resulting values, and throwing exceptions or errors if they exceed the limits of the variable type2.

A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a security solution that monitors and controls the use of cloud-based services and applications. A CASB can provide data loss prevention (DLP) capabilities for sensitive data that is being stored in the cloud, such as encryption, masking, tokenization, or redaction. A CASB can also enforce policies and compliance requirements for cloud usage, such as authentication, authorization, auditing, and reporting. The other options are not appropriate solutions for controlling sensitive data in the cloud. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 14; https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cloud-app-security/what-is-cloud-app-security

The security analyst should recommend replacing the strcpy function with a safer alternative. The strcpy function is a C library function that copies a string from one buffer to another. However, this function does not check the size of the destination buffer, which can lead to buffer overflow vulnerabilities if the source string is longer than the destination buffer. Buffer overflow vulnerabilities can allow attackers to execute arbitrary code or crash the program. A safer alternative to strcpy is strncpy, which limits the number of characters copied to the size of the destination buffer.

This line from the output most likely indicates that attackers could quickly use brute force and determine the negotiated secret session key, as it represents a weak cipher suite that uses an outdated encryption algorithm, a small key size, and no forward secrecy. A cipher suite is a combination of cryptographic algorithms and parameters that are used to establish a secure communication channel between two parties. The cipher suite in this line consists of four components: TLS_RSA_WITH_DES_CBC_SHA 56.

• TLS stands for Transport Layer Security, and it is a protocol that provides security and privacy for network communications.
• RSA stands for Rivest-Shamir-Adleman, and it is an algorithm that uses public-key cryptography for key exchange and authentication.
• DES stands for Data Encryption Standard, and it is an algorithm that uses symmetric-key cryptography for data encryption.
• CBC stands for Cipher Block Chaining, and it is a mode of operation that encrypts each block of data by XORing it with the previous ciphertext block.
• SHA stands for Secure Hash Algorithm, and it is an algorithm that produces a fixed-length hash value from any input data.
• 56 stands for the key size in bits, which indicates how strong or secure the encryption is.

The cipher suite in this line is weak because:

• DES is an outdated encryption algorithm that has been broken by brute force attacks, as it has a small key size of 56 bits, which can be easily guessed by modern computers.
• RSA does not provide forward secrecy, which means that if the RSA private key is compromised, all past and future communications encrypted with that key can be decrypted by an attacker.
• SHA is also an outdated hash algorithm that has been replaced by newer versions such as SHA-2 or SHA-3, as it has some vulnerabilities and weaknesses.

A cybersecurity analyst is researching operational data to develop a script that will detect the presence of a threat on corporate assets. The most useful information to produce this script is MITRE ATT&CK reports. MITRE ATT&CK is a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. MITRE ATT&CK reports provide detailed information on how different threat actors operate, what tools they use, what indicators they leave behind, and how to detect or mitigate their attacks. The other options are not as useful or relevant for this purpose. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 9; https://attack.mitre.org/

This is the primary reason why financial institutions may share up-to-date threat intelligence information on a secure feed that is dedicated to their sector. Threat intelligence is the collection, analysis, and dissemination of information about current or potential threats to an organization’s assets, operations, or reputation. By sharing threat intelligence information, financial institutions can benefit from the collective knowledge, experience, and capabilities of their peers and partners, and enhance their situational awareness, threat detection, and incident response. Sharing threat intelligence information can also help financial institutions identify common attack patterns, trends, and techniques, as well as the malicious actors and indicators of compromise (IOCs) associated with them. IOCs are pieces of forensic data that can be used to identify potentially malicious activities or intrusions on a network or system, such as IP addresses, domains, URLs, file hashes, or email addresses

Data loss prevention (DLP) is a set of policies and tools that aim to prevent unauthorized disclosure of sensitive data. DLP transport rules are rules that apply to email messages that are sent or received by an organization’s mail server. These rules can provide deep content analysis, which means they can scan the content of email messages and attachments for sensitive data patterns, such as client lists or contact information. If a rule detects a violation of the DLP policy, it can take actions such as blocking, quarantining, or notifying the sender or recipient. This would improve security and help prevent sales team members from sending sensitive client lists to their personal accounts. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 14; https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/security-and-compliance/mail-flow-rules/data-loss-prevention

The correct answer is B. The analyst should block requests to no-thanks.invalid. The log snippet shows a DNS query from host 192.168.1.67 to the public resolver 8.8.8.8 for the domain name no-thanks.invalid, which is resolved to the IP address 102.100.20.20. This is a possible indicator of compromise (IOC), as no-thanks.invalid is a known malicious domain that is used by attackers to exfiltrate data or execute commands on compromised hosts1. The analyst should block requests to this domain to prevent further communication with the attacker’s server and investigate the host 192.168.1.67 for signs of infection.

A. The analyst should disable DNS recursion is not correct. DNS recursion is a process where a DNS server queries other DNS servers on behalf of a client until it finds the authoritative answer for a domain name2. Disabling DNS recursion would prevent the DNS server from resolving any domain names that are not in its cache or zone files, which would affect the normal functionality of the network and the internet access of the clients.

C. The analyst should disconnect host 192.168.1.67 is not correct. Disconnecting host 192.168.1.67 would stop the communication with the malicious domain, but it would also disrupt the legitimate activities of the host and its user. Moreover, disconnecting the host would not remove the malware or root cause of the compromise, and it would not prevent the host from reconnecting to the malicious domain once it is online again.

D. The analyst should sinkhole 102.100.20.20 is not correct. Sinkholing is a technique that redirects malicious or unwanted traffic to a controlled destination, such as a fake or isolated server3. Sinkholing 102.100.20.20 would prevent the communication with the malicious domain, but it would also require access and control over the public resolver 8.8.8.8, which is not owned or managed by the analyst or the company.

E. The analyst should disallow queries to the 8.8.8.8 resolver is not correct. Disallowing queries to the 8.8.8.8 resolver would prevent the communication with the malicious domain, but it would also affect the resolution of other legitimate domain names that are not in the local DNS server’s cache or zone files.

1: DNS Tunneling: how DNS can be (ab)used by malicious actors 2: What Is DNS Recursion? 3: What Is a Sinkhole Attack?

A risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the potential threats and vulnerabilities that may affect an organization’s assets, operations, or objectives. A risk assessment matrix is a tool that can help prioritize the risks based on their likelihood and impact1.

The CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) is a standard framework for rating the severity of vulnerabilities in software systems. The CVSS provides a numerical score from 0 to 10, as well as a qualitative rating from Low to Critical, based on the characteristics and consequences of the vulnerability2.

However, the CVSS score alone may not be sufficient to determine the priority of mitigation and remediation actions for each vulnerability. Other factors that may influence the decision include:

• Patch availability: This metric indicates whether there is a fix or update available for the vulnerability from the vendor or developer. Patch availability can affect the urgency and feasibility of remediation, as well as the risk exposure and potential damage of exploitation. For example, a vulnerability with a high CVSS score but with a readily available patch may be less critical than a vulnerability with a lower CVSS score but with no patch available3.
• Mission criticality: This metric reflects the importance and value of the asset or system affected by the vulnerability to the organization’s mission, goals, or functions. Mission criticality can affect the impact and priority of remediation, as well as the risk tolerance and acceptance level of the organization. For example, a vulnerability with a high CVSS score but affecting a non-essential system may be less critical than a vulnerability with a lower CVSS score but affecting a core system4.
• OS type: This metric indicates the operating system (OS) of the asset or system affected by the vulnerability. OS type can affect the likelihood and complexity of exploitation, as well as the availability and compatibility of patches or mitigations. For example, a vulnerability with a high CVSS score but affecting an uncommon or unsupported OS may be less critical than a vulnerability with a lower CVSS score but affecting a widely used or supported OS3.
• OS or application versions: This metric indicates the specific version of the OS or application affected by the vulnerability. OS or application versions can affect the applicability and relevance of the vulnerability, as well as the availability and compatibility of patches or mitigations. For example, a vulnerability with a high CVSS score but affecting an outdated or obsolete version may be less critical than a vulnerability with a lower CVSS score but affecting a current or popular version3.
• System architecture: This metric indicates the design and configuration of the asset or system affected by the vulnerability. System architecture can affect the exposure and accessibility of the vulnerability, as well as the effectiveness and efficiency of patches or mitigations. For example, a vulnerability with a high CVSS score but affecting an isolated or segmented system may be less critical than a vulnerability with a lower CVSS score but affecting an interconnected or integrated system3.

Therefore, to best enable the organization to prioritize its efforts based on impact, patch availability is one of the most important metrics to consider in addition to the CVSS score for each CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures). Patch availability can directly influence the risk level and remediation strategy for each vulnerability.

Wireshark is a tool that can capture and analyze network traffic, including Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) and Voice over IP (VoIP) packets. The security analyst can use Wireshark to extract the audio data from the VoIP call that originated from the suspicious IP address and provide it to law enforcement. iptables, tcpdump, and Netflow are other tools that can manipulate or monitor network traffic, but they cannot extract audio data from VoIP packets. Reference: https://www.wireshark.org/docs/wsug_html_chunked/ChVoIPAnalysis.html

A managerial control is a function of management that involves setting performance standards, measuring performance, and taking corrective actions when necessary. A managerial control helps to regulate the organizational activities and ensure that they are aligned with the organizational goals and objectives1. One of the functions of a managerial control is to help design and implement the security planning, program development, and maintenance of the security life cycle. The security life cycle is a process that defines the phases of security activities from initiation to disposal2. A managerial control can help to establish the security policies, procedures, roles, and responsibilities for each phase of the security life cycle. A managerial control can also help to monitor and evaluate the security performance and effectiveness of each phase and take corrective actions if needed.

DMARC stands for Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance. It is an email authentication protocol that helps prevent spoofing and phishing attacks by verifying that the sender’s domain matches the domain in the email header. DMARC also provides a way for domain owners to specify how receivers should handle unauthenticated messages from their domain1

The analyst decided to include a custom lookup for these files on the endpoint’s log-in script as a mechanism to improve existing detection capabilities, by checking if any of these files are present on the endpoints during log-in. This can help identify any compromised endpoints that may have been infected by the zero-day vulnerability, and alert the analyst for further investigation or response.

The calc entry is a suspicious registry entry that should be investigated first by the analyst. The calc entry is located in the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run registry key, which is a common location for malware to persist and execute on system startup. The calc entry has a data value of “C:\Windows\System32\calc.exe”, which is the path to the legitimate Windows Calculator program. However, this program does not need to run on system startup, and it could be a disguise for a malicious executable that has replaced or renamed the original calculator program. The calc entry could also be a sign of a fileless malware attack, where the attacker uses the legitimate calculator program to execute malicious commands or scripts in memory1.

Change Management

o The process through which changes to the configuration of information systems are

monitored and controlled, as part of the organization's overall configuration

management efforts

o Each individual component should have a separate document or database record that

describes its initial state and subsequent changes

▪ Configuration information

▪ Patches installed

▪ Backup records

▪ Incident reports/issues

o Change management ensures all changes are planned and controlled to minimize risk of

a service disruption

Change management is a process that ensures changes to systems or processes are introduced in a controlled and coordinated manner. Change management helps to minimize the impact of changes on the business operations and avoid unintended consequences or errors3 Change management can help prevent the issue of utility installation affecting the web server cluster by ensuring that the utility is properly planned, tested, approved, documented, communicated, and monitored.

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is a security technology designed to detect, prevent, and respond to the unauthorized disclosure of confidential data. By updating the DLP rules and metadata, it is possible to better define what types of confidential information can be shared and limit access to any sensitive documents.

DLP rules and metadata can help to identify, classify and label sensitive data based on its content and context. DLP rules and metadata can also help to enforce actions or policies on sensitive data, such as blocking, encrypting or alerting .

A buffer overflow is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in an application or program that does not properly check the size or boundaries of an input. A buffer overflow occurs when an attacker supplies more data than the buffer can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations. This can result in unpredictable behavior, such as crashes, errors, data corruption, or execution of malicious code2 The tool that the analyst ran against the executable supplied an input that was too long for the buffer allocated by the executable. This caused a buffer overflow in the executable’s memory, as indicated by the error message “Segmentation fault (core dumped)”.

According to the CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam (CS0-002) study guide, a tabletop exercise can be executed by internal managers to simulate and validate changes to the risk management plan, incident response plan, and system security plan. In a tabletop exercise, participants discuss and work through a simulated scenario, usually in a classroom or conference room setting, to evaluate their readiness and understanding of the proposed changes. This type of exercise can help to identify any potential issues or gaps in the proposed changes and can provide valuable insights for refining and improving the plans.

Data execution prevention (DEP) is a security feature that prevents code from being executed in memory regions that are marked as data-only. This helps mitigate buffer overflow attacks, which are a type of attack where a program overwrites data to a buffer beyond its allocated size, potentially allowing malicious code to be executed. DEP can be implemented at the hardware or software level and can prevent unauthorized code execution in memory buffers. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 10; https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/win32/memory/data-execution-prevention

"User acceptance testing (UAT) is the last phase of the software testing process. During UAT, actual software users test the software to make sure it can handle required tasks in real-world scenarios, according to specifications." https://www.plutora.com/blog/uat-user-acceptance-testing

User acceptance testing is the software development process by which function, usability, and scenarios are tested against a known set of base requirements. User acceptance testing (UAT) is the final stage of software development before production. It is used to get feedback from users who test the software and its user interface (UI). UAT is usually done manually, with users creating real-world situations and testing how the software reacts and performs. UAT is used to determine if end-users accept software before it’s made public. Client or business requirements determine whether it fulfills the expectations originally set in its development2.

What is that application for? "The DMZ is a special network zone designed to house systems that receive connections from the outside world, such as web and email servers. Sound firewall designs place these systems on an isolated network where, if they become compromised, they pose little threat to the internal network because connections between the DMZ and the internal network must still pass through the firewall and are subject to its security policy"

Creating a proper DMZ for outdated components and segregating the JBoss server is the best action to take first to prevent server compromise and business disruption at the same time. A DMZ (demilitarized zone) is a network segment that separates internal networks from external networks, such as the internet, and provides an additional layer of security3. Creating a proper DMZ for outdated components and segregating the JBoss server can isolate and protect the critical server from external attacks that may exploit its vulnerability.

The security analyst should set up a PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) between Company A and Company B and exchange shared certificates between the two entities. This will allow them to establish a more automated approach to secure data transfers between their ERP systems. A PKI is a system that provides encryption and authentication services using public key cryptography. A PKI consists of certificates, certificate authorities (CAs), and other components that enable users to securely exchange data over untrusted networks. By exchanging shared certificates between Company A and Company B, they can verify each other’s identity and encrypt their data using public and private keys.

The line from this output that most likely indicates that attackers could quickly use brute force and determine the negotiated secret session key is TLS_DHE_RSA_WITH_AES_128_CBC_SHA 128 DH (1024 bits). This line indicates that the cipher suite uses Diffie-Hellman ephemeral (DHE) key exchange with RSA authentication, AES 128-bit encryption with cipher block chaining (CBC) mode, and SHA-1 hashing. The DHE key exchange uses a 1024-bit Diffie-Hellman group, which is considered too weak for modern security standards and can be broken by attackers using sufficient computing power. The other lines indicate stronger cipher suites that use longer key lengths or more secure algorithms. References: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 9; https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/win32/secauthn/cipher-suites-in-schannel

A firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules or policies. A firewall can help prevent unauthorized or malicious traffic from entering or leaving a network, and protect network resources from external threats. Placing a firewall in between the corporate network and the guest network can help prevent a guest device from infecting machines on the corporate network or taking down the company’s single internet connection, as it can block or filter any unwanted or harmful traffic from the guest network.