Summer Sale - Special Limited Time 65% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: dpm65

CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK v5.0) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What are the essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by the NIST model?

Options:

A.

Resource sharing, automated recovery, universal connectivity, distributed costs, fair pricing

B.

High availability, geographical distribution, scaled tenancy, continuous resourcing, market pricing

C.

On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, measured service

D.

Equal access to dedicated hosting, isolated networks, scalability resources, and automated continuous provisioning

Buy Now
Questions 5

Which aspect is most important for effective cloud governance?

Options:

A.

Formalizing cloud security policies

B.

Implementing best-practice cloud security control objectives

C.

Negotiating SLAs with cloud providers

D.

Establishing a governance hierarchy

Buy Now
Questions 6

Why is it essential to include key metrics and periodic reassessment in cybersecurity governance?

Options:

A.

To meet legal requirements and avoid fines

B.

To ensure effective and continuous improvement of security measures

C.

To document all cybersecurity incidents and monitor them overtime

D.

To reduce the number of security incidents to zero

Buy Now
Questions 7

What is the primary role of Identity and Access Management (IAM)?

Options:

A.

To encrypt data at rest and in transit

B.

Ensure only authorized entities access resources

C.

To monitor and log all user activities and traffic

D.

Ensure all users have the same level of access

Buy Now
Questions 8

What is a key component of governance in the context of cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Defining roles and responsibilities

B.

Standardizing technical specifications for security control

C.

Defining tools and technologies

D.

Enforcement of the Penetration Testing procedure

Buy Now
Questions 9

Which aspects are most important for ensuring security in a hybrid cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Use of encryption for all data at rest

B.

Implementation of robust IAM and network security practices

C.

Regular software updates and patch management

D.

Deployment of multi-factor authentication only

Buy Now
Questions 10

What key activities are part of the preparation phase in incident response planning?

Options:

A.

Implementing encryption and access controls

B.

Establishing a response process, training, communication plans, and infrastructure evaluations

C.

Creating incident reports and post-incident reviews

D.

Developing malware analysis procedures and penetration testing

Buy Now
Questions 11

What is the primary objective of posture management in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Automating incident response procedures

B.

Optimizing cloud cost efficiency

C.

Continuous monitoring of configurations

D.

Managing user access permissions

Buy Now
Questions 12

Which practice minimizes human error in long-running cloud workloads’ security management?

Options:

A.

Increasing manual security audits frequency

B.

Converting all workloads to ephemeral

C.

Restricting access to workload configurations

D.

Implementing automated security and compliance checks

Buy Now
Questions 13

Which of the following best describes the multi-tenant nature of cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Cloud customers operate independently without sharing resources

B.

Cloud customers share a common pool of resources but are segregated and isolated from each other

C.

Multiple cloud customers are allocated a set of dedicated resources via a common web interface

D.

Cloud customers share resources without any segregation or isolation

Buy Now
Questions 14

Which of the following best describes a primary focus of cloud governance with an emphasis on security?

Options:

A.

Enhancing user experience with intuitive interfaces.

B.

Maximizing cost savings through resource optimization.

C.

Increasing scalability and flexibility of cloud solutions.

D.

Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements and internal policies.

Buy Now
Questions 15

What is the most effective way to identify security vulnerabilities in an application?

Options:

A.

Performing code reviews of the application source code just prior to release

B.

Relying solely on secure coding practices by the developers without any testing

C.

Waiting until the application is fully developed and performing a single penetration test

D.

Conducting automated and manual security testing throughout the development

Buy Now
Questions 16

Which of the following best describes the purpose of cloud security control objectives?

Options:

A.

They are standards that cannot be modified to suit the unique needs of different cloud environments.

B.

They focus on the technical aspects of cloud security with less consideration on the broader organizational goals.

C.

They dictate specific implementation methods for securing cloud environments, tailored to individual cloud providers.

D.

They provide outcome-focused guidelines for desired controls, ensuring measurable and adaptable security measures

Buy Now
Questions 17

Which aspect of assessing cloud providers poses the most significant challenge?

Options:

A.

Inconsistent policy standards and the proliferation of provider requirements.

B.

Limited visibility into internal operations and technology.

C.

Excessive details shared by the cloud provider and consequent information overload.

D.

Poor provider documentation and over-reliance on pooled audit.

Buy Now
Questions 18

In the context of server-side encryption handled by cloud providers, what is the key attribute of this encryption?

Options:

A.

The data is encrypted using symmetric encryption.

B.

The data is not encrypted in transit.

C.

The data is encrypted using customer or provider keys after transmission to the cloud.

D.

The data is encrypted before transmission to the cloud.

Buy Now
Questions 19

Which technique involves assessing potential threats through analyzing attacker capabilities, motivations, and potential targets?

Options:

A.

Threat modeling

B.

Vulnerability assessment

C.

Incident response

D.

Risk assessment

Buy Now
Questions 20

What is a key characteristic of serverless functions in terms of execution environment?

Options:

A.

They need continuous monitoring by the user

B.

They run on dedicated long-running instances

C.

They require pre-allocated server space

D.

They are executed in isolated, ephemeral environments

Buy Now
Questions 21

What is the primary purpose of Cloud Infrastructure Entitlement Management (CIEM) in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Monitoring network traffic

B.

Deploying cloud services

C.

Governing access to cloud resources

D.

Managing software licensing

Buy Now
Questions 22

What is the primary function of landing zones or account factories in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Provide cost-saving recommendations for cloud resources

B.

Consistent configurations and policies for new deployments

C.

Enhance the performance of cloud applications

D.

Automate the deployment of microservices in the cloud

Buy Now
Questions 23

What should every cloud customer set up with its cloud service provider (CSP) that can be utilized in the event of an incident?

Options:

A.

A data destruction plan

B.

A communication plan

C.

A back-up website

D.

A spill remediation kit

E.

A rainy day fund

Buy Now
Questions 24

Which governance domain deals with evaluating how cloud computing affects compliance with internal

security policies and various legal requirements, such as regulatory and legislative?

Options:

A.

Legal Issues: Contracts and Electronic Discovery

B.

Infrastructure Security

C.

Compliance and Audit Management

D.

Information Governance

E.

Governance and Enterprise Risk Management

Buy Now
Questions 25

Which factors primarily drive organizations to adopt cloud computing solutions?

Options:

A.

Scalability and redundancy

B.

Improved software development methodologies

C.

Enhanced security and compliance

D.

Cost efficiency and speed to market

Buy Now
Questions 26

All cloud services utilize virtualization technologies.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Buy Now
Questions 27

Which of the following encryption methods would be utilized when object storage is used as the back-end for an application?

Options:

A.

Database encryption

B.

Media encryption

C.

Asymmetric encryption

D.

Object encryption

E.

Client/application encryption

Buy Now
Questions 28

How can virtual machine communications bypass network security controls?

Options:

A.

VM communications may use a virtual network on the same hardware host

B.

The guest OS can invoke stealth mode

C.

Hypervisors depend upon multiple network interfaces

D.

VM images can contain rootkits programmed to bypass firewalls

E.

Most network security systems do not recognize encrypted VM traffic

Buy Now
Questions 29

ENISA: Lock-in is ranked as a high risk in ENISA research, a key underlying vulnerability causing lock in is:

Options:

A.

Lack of completeness and transparency in terms of use

B.

Lack of information on jurisdictions

C.

No source escrow agreement

D.

Unclear asset ownership

E.

Audit or certification not available to customers

Buy Now
Questions 30

CCM: A company wants to use the IaaS offering of some CSP. Which of the following options for using CCM is NOT suitable for the company as a cloud customer?

Options:

A.

Submit the CCM on behalf of the CSP to CSA Security, Trust & Assurance Registry (STAR), a free, publicly accessible registry that documents the security controls provided by CSPs

B.

Use CCM to build a detailed list of requirements and controls that they want their CSP to implement

C.

Use CCM to help assess the risk associated with the CSP

D.

None of the above

Buy Now
Questions 31

What is defined as the process by which an opposing party may obtain private documents for use in litigation?

Options:

A.

Discovery

B.

Custody

C.

Subpoena

D.

Risk Assessment

E.

Scope

Buy Now
Questions 32

Your SLA with your cloud provider ensures continuity for all services.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Buy Now
Questions 33

When configured properly, logs can track every code, infrastructure, and configuration change and connect it back to the submitter and approver, including the test results.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Buy Now
Questions 34

Which cloud security model type provides generalized templates for helping implement cloud security?

Options:

A.

Conceptual models or frameworks

B.

Design patterns

C.

Controls models or frameworks

D.

Reference architectures

E.

Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

Buy Now
Questions 35

Use elastic servers when possible and move workloads to new instances.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Buy Now
Questions 36

The Software Defined Perimeter (SDP) includes which components?

Options:

A.

Client, Controller, and Gateway

B.

Client, Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

C.

Client, Firewall, and Gateway

D.

Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

E.

Client, Controller, and Firewall

Buy Now
Questions 37

Which concept provides the abstraction needed for resource pools?

Options:

A.

Virtualization

B.

Applistructure

C.

Hypervisor

D.

Metastructure

E.

Orchestration

Buy Now
Questions 38

Which communication methods within a cloud environment must be exposed for partners or consumers to access database information using a web application?

Options:

A.

Software Development Kits (SDKs)

B.

Resource Description Framework (RDF)

C.

Extensible Markup Language (XML)

D.

Application Binary Interface (ABI)

E.

Application Programming Interface (API)

Buy Now
Questions 39

Any given processor and memory will nearly always be running multiple workloads, often from different tenants.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Buy Now
Questions 40

ENISA: A reason for risk concerns of a cloud provider being acquired is:

Options:

A.

Arbitrary contract termination by acquiring company

B.

Resource isolation may fail

C.

Provider may change physical location

D.

Mass layoffs may occur

E.

Non-binding agreements put at risk

Buy Now
Questions 41

When investigating an incident in an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) environment, what can the user investigate on their own?

Options:

A.

The CSP server facility

B.

The logs of all customers in a multi-tenant cloud

C.

The network components controlled by the CSP

D.

The CSP office spaces

E.

Their own virtual instances in the cloud

Buy Now
Questions 42

What is known as a code execution environment running within an operating system that shares and uses the resources of the operating system?

Options:

A.

Platform-based Workload

B.

Pod

C.

Abstraction

D.

Container

E.

Virtual machine

Buy Now
Questions 43

What item below allows disparate directory services and independent security domains to be interconnected?

Options:

A.

Coalition

B.

Cloud

C.

Intersection

D.

Union

E.

Federation

Buy Now
Questions 44

Without virtualization, there is no cloud.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

Buy Now
Questions 45

Select the statement below which best describes the relationship between identities and attributes

Options:

A.

Attributes belong to entities and identities belong to attributes. Each attribute can have multiple identities but only one entity.

B.

An attribute is a unique object within a database. Each attribute it has a number of identities which help define its parameters.

C.

An identity is a distinct and unique object within a particular namespace. Attributes are properties which belong to an identity. Each identity can have multiple attributes.

D.

Attributes are made unique by their identities.

E.

Identities are the network names given to servers. Attributes are the characteristics of each server.

Buy Now
Questions 46

What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in compute virtualizations?

Options:

A.

Enforce isolation and maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure

B.

Monitor and log workloads and configure the security settings

C.

Enforce isolation and configure the security settings

D.

Maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure and configure the security settings

E.

Enforce isolation and monitor and log workloads

Buy Now
Questions 47

CCM: Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is a completely independent cloud

assessment toolkit that does not map any existing standards.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Buy Now
Questions 48

For third-party audits or attestations, what is critical for providers to publish and customers to evaluate?

Options:

A.

Scope of the assessment and the exact included features and services for the assessment

B.

Provider infrastructure information including maintenance windows and contracts

C.

Network or architecture diagrams including all end point security devices in use

D.

Service-level agreements between all parties

E.

Full API access to all required services

Buy Now
Questions 49

What is a core tenant of risk management?

Options:

A.

The provider is accountable for all risk management.

B.

You can manage, transfer, accept, or avoid risks.

C.

The consumers are completely responsible for all risk.

D.

If there is still residual risk after assessments and controls are in

place, you must accept the risk.

E.

Risk insurance covers all financial losses, including loss of

customers.

Buy Now
Questions 50

Which data security control is the LEAST likely to be assigned to an IaaS provider?

Options:

A.

Application logic

B.

Access controls

C.

Encryption solutions

D.

Physical destruction

E.

Asset management and tracking

Buy Now
Questions 51

Who is responsible for the security of the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform?

Options:

A.

The cloud consumer

B.

The majority is covered by the consumer

C.

It depends on the agreement

D.

The responsibility is split equally

E.

The cloud provider

Buy Now
Questions 52

Which term describes any situation where the cloud consumer does

not manage any of the underlying hardware or virtual machines?

Options:

A.

Serverless computing

B.

Virtual machineless

C.

Abstraction

D.

Container

E.

Provider managed

Buy Now
Questions 53

What is the primary focus during the Preparation phase of the Cloud Incident Response framework?

Options:

A.

Developing a cloud service provider evaluation criterion

B.

Deploying automated security monitoring tools across cloud services

C.

Establishing a Cloud Incident Response Team and response plans

D.

Conducting regular vulnerability assessments on cloud infrastructure

Buy Now
Questions 54

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of cloud-native security breaches?

Options:

A.

Inability to monitor cloud infrastructure for threats

B.

IAM failures

C.

Lack of encryption for data at rest

D.

Vulnerabilities in cloud provider's physical infrastructure

Buy Now
Questions 55

What is the primary purpose of implementing a systematic data/asset classification and catalog system in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

To automate the data encryption process across all cloud services

B.

To reduce the overall cost of cloud storage solutions

C.

To apply appropriate security controls based on asset sensitivity and importance

D.

To increase the speed of data retrieval within the cloud environment

Buy Now
Questions 56

How does the variability in Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems across cloud providers impact a multi-cloud strategy?

Options:

A.

Adds complexity by requiring separate configurations and integrations.

B.

Ensures better security by offering diverse IAM models.

C.

Reduces costs by leveraging different pricing models.

D.

Simplifies the management by providing standardized IAM protocols.

Buy Now
Questions 57

How does artificial intelligence pose both opportunities and risks in cloud security?

Options:

A.

AI enhances security without any adverse implications

B.

AI mainly reduces manual work with no significant security impacts

C.

AI enhances detection mechanisms but could be exploited for sophisticated attacks

D.

AI is only beneficial in data management, not security

Buy Now
Questions 58

In a containerized environment, what is fundamental to ensuring runtime protection for deployed containers?

Options:

A.

Implementing real-time visibility

B.

Deploying container-specific antivirus scanning

C.

Using static code analysis tools in the pipeline

D.

Full packet network monitoring

Buy Now
Questions 59

What is a PRIMARY cloud customer responsibility when managing SaaS applications in terms of security and compliance?

Options:

A.

Generating logs within the SaaS applications

B.

Managing the financial costs of SaaS subscriptions

C.

Providing training sessions for staff on using SaaS tools

D.

Evaluating the security measures and compliance requirements

Buy Now
Questions 60

What is the primary goal of implementing DevOps in a software development lifecycle?

Options:

A.

To create a separation between development and operations

B.

To eliminate the need for IT operations by automating all tasks

C.

To enhance collaboration between development and IT operations for efficient delivery

D.

To reduce the development team size by merging roles

Buy Now
Questions 61

Which of the following best describes compliance in the context of cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Defining and maintaining the governance plan

B.

Adherence to internal policies, laws, regulations, standards, and best practices

C.

Implementing automation technologies to monitor the control implemented

D.

Conducting regular penetration testing as stated in applicable laws and regulations

Buy Now
Questions 62

What goal is most directly achieved by implementing controls and policies that aim to provide a complete view of data use and exposure in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Enhancing data governance and compliance

B.

Simplifying cloud service integrations

C.

Increasing cloud data processing speed

D.

Reducing the cost of cloud storage

Buy Now
Questions 63

In the Incident Response Lifecycle, which phase involves identifying potential security events and examining them for validity?

Options:

A.

Post-Incident Activity

B.

Detection and Analysis

C.

Preparation

D.

Containment, Eradication, and Recovery

Buy Now
Questions 64

Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?

Options:

A.

Notifying affected parties

B.

Isolating affected systems

C.

Restoring services to normal operations

D.

Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses

Buy Now
Questions 65

Which of the following best describes how cloud computing manages shared resources?

Options:

A.

Through virtualization, with administrators allocating resources based on SLAs

B.

Through abstraction and automation to distribute resources to customers

C.

By allocating physical systems to a single customer at a time

D.

Through manual configuration of resources for each user need

Buy Now
Questions 66

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of cloud security frameworks?

Options:

A.

To implement detailed procedural instructions for security measures

B.

To organize control objectives for achieving desired security outcomes

C.

To ensure compliance with all regulatory requirements

D.

To provide tools for automated security management

Buy Now
Questions 67

Which cloud service model allows users to access applications hosted and managed by the provider, with the user only needing to configure the application?

Options:

A.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

B.

Database as a Service (DBaaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

Buy Now
Questions 68

What is a key advantage of using Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC) for cloud-based access management?

Options:

A.

PBAC eliminates the need for defining and managing user roles and permissions.

B.

PBAC is easier to implement and manage compared to Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).

C.

PBAC allows enforcement of granular, context-aware security policies using multiple attributes.

D.

PBAC ensures that access policies are consistent across all cloud providers and platforms.

Buy Now
Questions 69

Which phase of the CSA secure software development life cycle (SSDLC) focuses on ensuring that an application or product is deployed onto a secure infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Continuous Build, Integration, and Testing

B.

Continuous Delivery and Deployment

C.

Secure Design and Architecture

D.

Secure Coding

Buy Now
Questions 70

Which of the following is a common security issue associated with serverless computing environments?

Options:

A.

High operational costs

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

Limited scalability

D.

Complex deployment pipelines

Buy Now
Questions 71

What is a key consideration when handling cloud security incidents?

Options:

A.

Monitoring network traffic

B.

Focusing on technical fixes

C.

Cloud service provider service level agreements

D.

Hiring additional staff

Buy Now
Questions 72

Which of the following best describes the responsibility for security in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. The Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are accountable.

B.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The exact allocation of responsibilities depends on the technology and context.

C.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) have an advisory role.

D.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The allocation of responsibilities is constant.

Buy Now
Questions 73

What is the primary purpose of secrets management in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Optimizing cloud infrastructure performance

B.

Managing user authentication for human access

C.

Securely handling stored authentication credentials

D.

Monitoring network traffic for security threats

Buy Now
Questions 74

Why is snapshot management crucial for the virtual machine (VM) lifecycle?

Options:

A.

It allows for quick restoration points during updates or changes

B.

It is used for load balancing VMs

C.

It enhances VM performance significantly

D.

It provides real-time analytics on VM applications

Buy Now
Questions 75

How does SASE enhance traffic management when compared to traditional network models?

Options:

A.

It solely focuses on user authentication improvements

B.

It replaces existing network protocols with new proprietary ones

C.

It filters traffic near user devices, reducing the need for backhauling

D.

It requires all traffic to be sent through central data centers

Buy Now
Questions 76

How does the variability in Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems across cloud providers impact a multi-cloud strategy?

Options:

A.

Adds complexity by requiring separate configurations and integrations.

B.

Ensures better security by offering diverse IAM models.

C.

Reduces costs by leveraging different pricing models.

D.

Simplifies the management by providing standardized IAM protocols.

Buy Now
Questions 77

Which areas should be initially prioritized for hybrid cloud security?

Options:

A.

Cloud storage management and governance

B.

Data center infrastructure and architecture

C.

IAM and networking

D.

Application development and deployment

Buy Now
Questions 78

Which approach creates a secure network, invisible to unauthorized users?

Options:

A.

Firewalls

B.

Software-Defined Perimeter (SDP)

C.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

Buy Now
Questions 79

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in cybersecurity contexts?

Options:

A.

Reduces the need for security auditing

B.

Enables consistent security configurations through automation

C.

Increases manual control over security settings

D.

Increases scalability of cloud resources

Buy Now
Questions 80

What is an essential security characteristic required when using multi-tenant technologies?

Options:

A.

Segmented and segregated customer environments

B.

Limited resource allocation

C.

Resource pooling

D.

Abstraction and automation

Buy Now
Questions 81

In preparing for cloud incident response, why is updating forensics tools for virtual machines (VMs) and containers critical?

Options:

A.

To comply with cloud service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

To streamline communication with cloud service providers and customers

C.

To ensure compatibility with cloud environments for effective incident analysis

D.

To increase the speed of incident response team deployments

Buy Now
Questions 82

What does orchestration automate within a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Monitoring application performance

B.

Manual configuration of security policies

C.

Installation of operating systems

D.

Provisioning of VMs, networking and other resources

Buy Now
Questions 83

In a cloud context, what does entitlement refer to in relation to a user's permissions?

Options:

A.

The authentication methods a user is required to use when accessing the cloud environment.

B.

The level of technical support a user is entitled to from the cloud service provider.

C.

The resources or services a user is granted permission to access in the cloud environment.

D.

The ability for a user to grant access permissions to other users in the cloud environment.

Buy Now
Questions 84

Which Cloud Service Provider (CSP) security measure is primarily used to filter and monitor HTTP requests to protect against SQL injection and XSS attacks?

Options:

A.

CSP firewall

B.

Virtual Appliance

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

Buy Now
Questions 85

What is a key benefit of using customer-managed encryption keys with cloud key management service (KMS)?

Options:

A.

Customers can bypass the need for encryption

B.

Customers retain control over their encryption keys

C.

Customers can share their encryption keys more easily

D.

It reduces the computational load on the cloud service provider

Buy Now
Questions 86

What is a key advantage of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in application development?

Options:

A.

It removes the need for manual testing.

B.

It eliminates the need for cybersecurity measures.

C.

It enables version control and rapid deployment.

D.

It ensures zero configuration drift by default.

Buy Now
Exam Code: CCSK
Exam Name: Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK v5.0)
Last Update: Apr 20, 2025
Questions: 288

PDF + Testing Engine

$57.75  $164.99

Testing Engine

$43.75  $124.99
buy now CCSK testing engine

PDF (Q&A)

$36.75  $104.99
buy now CCSK pdf
dumpsmate guaranteed to pass
24/7 Customer Support

DumpsMate's team of experts is always available to respond your queries on exam preparation. Get professional answers on any topic of the certification syllabus. Our experts will thoroughly satisfy you.

Site Secure

mcafee secure

TESTED 24 Apr 2025