CAS-004 CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam Questions and Answers

The best way to achieve the objective of discovering SaaS applications and blocking access to unapproved or identified as risky ones is to implement cloud infrastructure to proxy all user web traffic and control access according to centralized policy (C). This solution would allow the security architect to inspect all web traffic and enforce access control policies centrally. This solution also allows the security architect to detect and block risky SaaS applications.

The cloud architecture team should implement Autoscaling (C), WAF (D) and Encryption (F). Autoscaling (C) will ensure that the application is running at 70% capacity at all times. WAF (D) will protect the application from DoS and DDoS attacks. Encryption (F) will protect the data from unauthorized access and ensure that the sensitive workloads remain secure.

SQL injection is a type of vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute malicious SQL commands on a database by inserting them into an input field. The code snippet resolves this vulnerability by using parameterized queries, which prevent the input from being interpreted as part of the SQL command. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/SQL_Injection

A hybrid IaaS solution in a single-tenancy cloud is the best option for the company to meet the computing demand while complying with healthcare standards for virtualization and cloud computing. A hybrid IaaS solution allows the company to use both on-premises and cloud-based resources to scale up its capacity and performance. A single-tenancy cloud ensures that the company’s data and applications are isolated from other customers and have dedicated resources and security controls. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/special-topics/cloud-computing/index.html

Dual control is a security principle that requires two or more authorized individuals to perform a task concurrently. This reduces the risk of fraud, error, or misuse of sensitive assets or information. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2018/vo lume-1/using-dual-control-to-mitigate-risk

WPA3 SAE prevents brute-force attacks.

“WPA3 Personal (WPA-3 SAE) Mode is a static passphrase-based method. It provides better security than what WPA2 previously provided, even when a non-complex password is used, thanks to Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE), the personal authentication process of WPA3.”

Shredding is the most secure way to dispose of the SSDs given the CISO’s concern. Shredding involves physically destroying the SSDs by cutting them into small pieces that make the data unrecoverable. Shredding is the ultimate data destruction method for both HDDs and SSDs, as it ensures that no data remanence is left on the media.

A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is a set of policies and procedures that outline how an organization should respond to and recover from disruptions [1]. It is designed to ensure that critical operations and services can be quickly restored and maintained, and should include steps to identify risks, develop plans to mitigate those risks, and detail the procedures to be followed in the event of a disruption. Resources:

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Study Guide, Chapter 4: “Business Continuity Planning,” Wiley, 2018. https://www.wiley.com/en-us/CompTIA+Advanced+Security+Practitioner+CASP%2B+Study+Guide%2C+2nd+Edition-p-9781119396582

Modifying the ACLs (access control lists) is the most likely solution to avoid the intermittent access issues with the new cloud application. ACLs are used to define permissions for different users and groups to access resources on a network. The problem may be caused by incorrect or missing ACLs for the marketing department that prevent them from accessing the cloud application or its data sources. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario

The concern is users operating in a spit tunnel config which is what is being described. Using a Full Tunnel would route traffic from all applications through a single tunnel. https://cybernew s.com/what-is-vpn/split-tunneling/

XSS stands for cross-site scripting, which is a type of attack that injects malicious code into a web page that is then executed by the browser of a victim. The URL in the question contains a script tag that tries to execute a JavaScript code from an external source, which is a sign of XSS. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/xss/

A Service Level Agreement is a contract between a service provider and a customer that outlines the level of services to be provided, the metrics by which those services will be measured, and how the agreement will be managed by both parties. SLAs also include provisions for dispute resolution and for the termination of the agreement.

Filter XYZ is the best option that meets the budget needs of the business. Filter XYZ has an ALE of $1 million per year, which is lower than any other filter option. ALE stands for annualized loss expectancy, which is a measure of how much money a business can expect to lose due to a risk over a year. ALE is calculated by multiplying the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) of an event by the single loss expectancy (SLE) of an event. ARO is how often an event is expected to occur in a year. SLE is how much money an event will cost each time it occurs. Therefore, ALE = ARO x SLE. Filter XYZ has an ARO of 0.1 and an SLE of $10 million, so ALE = 0.1 x $10 million = $1 million. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24771/annualized-loss-expectancy-ale

 Execute never is a technology that can be enabled on the ARM architecture to prevent malware from inserting itself in another process memory location and executing code. Execute never is a feature that allows each memory region to be tagged as not containing executable code by setting the execute never (XN) bit in the translation table entry. If the XN bit is set to 1, then any attempt to execute an instruction in that region results in a permission fault. If the XN bit is cleared to 0, then code can execute from that memory region. Execute never also prevents speculative instruction fetches from memory regions that are marked as non-executable, which can avoid undesirable side-effects or vulnerabilities. By enabling execute never, the developer can protect the process memory from being hijacked by malware. Verified References:

https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0360/f/memory-management-unit/memory-access-control/execute-never-bits

https://developer.arm.com/documentation/den0013/d/The-Memory-Management-Unit/Memory-attributes/Execute-Never

https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0406/c/System-Level-Architecture/Virtual-Memory-System-Architecture–VMSA-/Memory-access-control/Execute-never-restrictions-on-instruction-fetching

The SIEM events show that powershell.exe was executed on multiple endpoints with an outbound connection to 40.90.23.154, which is an IP address associated with malicious activity. This could indicate a malware infection or a command-and-control channel. The best response action is to configure the forward proxy to block 40.90.23.154, which would prevent further communication with the malicious IP address. Disabling powershell.exe on all endpoints may not be feasible or effective, as it could affect legitimate operations and not remove the malware. Restarting Microsoft Windows Defender may not detect or stop the malware, as it could have bypassed or disabled it. Disabling local administrator privileges on the endpoints may not prevent the malware from running or communicating, as it could have escalated privileges or used other methods. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-forward-proxy https://partners.comptia.o rg/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Data exposure is a security concern that will most likely need to be addressed during migration of all company data to the cloud, as it could involve sensitive or confidential data being accessed or disclosed by unauthorized parties. Data exposure could occur due to misconfigured cloud services, insecure data transfers, insider threats, or malicious attacks. Data exposure could also result in compliance violations, reputational damage, or legal liabilities. Latency is not a security concern, but a performance concern that could affect the speed or quality of data access or transmission. Data loss is not a security concern, but a availability concern that could affect the integrity or recovery of data. Data dispersion is not a security concern, but a management concern that could affect the visibility or control of data. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-exposure https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Key escrow is a process that involves storing encryption keys with a trusted third party, such as a CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) or a government agency. Key escrow can enable authorized access to encrypted data in case of emergencies, legal issues, or data recovery. However, key escrow also introduces some risks and challenges, such as trust, security, and privacy. References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1772/key-escrow https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/key-escrow

Increasing the frequency of backups and creating SIEM (security information and event management) alerts for IOCs (indicators of compromise) are the best recommendations that the management team can make based on RPO (recovery point objective) requirements. RPO is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss that can occur during a disaster recovery event. Increasing the frequency of backups can reduce the amount of data loss that can occur, as it can create more recent copies or snapshots of the data. Creating SIEM alerts for IOCs can help detect and respond to ransomware attacks, as it can collect, correlate, and analyze security events and data from various sources and generate alerts based on predefined rules or thresholds. Leaving the current backup schedule intact and paying the ransom to decrypt the data are not good recommendations, as they could result in more data loss than the RPO allows, as well as encourage more ransomware attacks or expose the company to legal or ethical issues. Leaving the current backup schedule intact and making the human resources fileshare read-only are not good recommendations, as they could result in more data loss than the RPO allows, as well as affect the normal operations or functionality of the fileshare. Decreasing the frequency of backups and paying the ransom to decrypt the data are not good recommendations, as they could result in more data loss than the RPO allows, as well as increase the risk of losing data due to less frequent backups or unreliable decryption. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-rpo https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A VPN (virtual private network) can provide secure connectivity for remote users to access servers hosted by the cloud provider. A CASB (cloud access security broker) can enforce policies and controls for accessing SaaS applications. A secure web gateway can monitor and filter user browser activity to prevent malicious or unauthorized traffic. Verified References: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-vpn

This solution would address the three issues as follows:

Serving static content via distributed CDNs would reduce the latency for international users by delivering images from the nearest edge location to the user’s request.

Creating a read replica of the central database and pulling reports from there would offload the read-intensive workload from the primary database and avoid affecting the inventory data for order placement.

Auto-scaling API servers based on performance would dynamically adjust the number of servers to match the demand and balance the load across them at peak times.

Preparation is the process that can be used to identify potential prevention recommendations after a security incident, such as a ransomware attack. Preparation involves planning and implementing security measures to prevent or mitigate future incidents, such as by updating policies, procedures, or controls, conducting training or awareness campaigns, or acquiring new tools or resources. Detection is the process of discovering or identifying security incidents, not preventing them. Remediation is the process of containing or resolving security incidents, not preventing them. Recovery is the process of restoring normal operations after security incidents, not preventing them. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-incident-response https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Microsegmentation enabled by software-defined networking is an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically. Microsegmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller segments or zones based on granular criteria, such as applications, services, users, or devices. Microsegmentation can provide fine-grained access control and isolation for network resources, preventing unauthorized or lateral movements within the network. Software-defined networking is a technology that decouples the control plane from the data plane in network devices, allowing centralized and programmable management of network functions and policies. Software-defined networking can enable microsegmentation by dynamically creating and enforcing network segments or zones based on predefined rules or policies. Peer-to-peer secure communications enabled by mobile applications is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as peer-to-peer secure communications is a technique that allows direct and encrypted communication between two or more parties without relying on a central server or intermediary. Proxied application data connections enabled by API gateways is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as proxied application data connections is a technique that allows indirect and filtered communication between applications or services through an intermediary device or service that can modify or monitor the traffic. VLANs (virtual local area networks) enabled by network infrastructure devices is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as VLANs are logical segments of a physical network that can group devices or users based on common criteria, such as function, department, or location. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-microsegmentation https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Cgroups (control groups) is a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, such as CPU, memory, disk I/O, or network bandwidth. Cgroups can help prevent resource exhaustion scenarios on the Docker host due to a single application that is overconsuming available resources, as it can enforce quotas or priorities for each container or group of containers. Union filesystem overlay is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a technique that allows multiple filesystems to be mounted on the same mount point, creating a layered representation of files and directories. Linux namespaces is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a feature that isolates and virtualizes system resources for each process or group of processes, creating independent instances of global resources. Device mapper is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a framework that provides logical volume management, encryption, or snapshotting capabilities for block devices. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cgroups https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/ca sp-content-guide

A public key infrastructure (PKI) is a system of certificates and keys that can provide encryption and authentication for APIs (application programming interfaces). A PKI can be used to store customer keys for accessing APIs and segregating customer data sets. A trusted platform module (TPM) is a hardware device that provides cryptographic functions and key storage, but it is not suitable for storing customer keys for APIs. A hardware security module (HSM) is similar to a TPM, but it is used for storing keys for applications, not for APIs. A localized key store is a software component that stores keys locally, but it is not as secure or scalable as a PKI. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-pki https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Rate limiting is a technique that can limit the number or frequency of requests that a client can make to an API (application programming interface) within a given time frame. This can help remedy the performance issues caused by high CPU utilization on the servers that host the APIs, as it can prevent excessive or abusive requests that could overload the servers. Implementing geoblocking on the WAF (web application firewall) may not help remedy the performance issues, as it could block legitimate requests based on geographic location, not on request rate. Implementing OAuth 2.0 on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as OAuth 2.0 is a protocol for authorizing access to APIs, not for limiting requests. Implementing input validation on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as input validation is a technique for preventing invalid or malicious input from reaching the API, not for limiting requests. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-rate-limiting https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Deploying SOAR (Security Orchestration Automation and Response) utilities and runbooks is the best technique for automating the process of restoring nominal performance on a legacy satellite link due to degraded modes of operation caused by deprecated hardware and software.

The device event logs show that the device was in two different locations (New York and London) within a short time span (one hour), which indicates impossible travel. This could be a sign of a compromised device or account. The best response action is to disable the device’s account and access while investigating the incident. Malicious installation of an application is not evident from the logs, nor is resource leak or falsified status reporting. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-impossible-travel https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) is a technology that allows organizations to use multiple, low-cost Internet connections to create a secure and dynamic WAN. SD-WAN can provide benefits such as lower costs, higher performance, and easier management compared to traditional WAN technologies, such as MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching).

However, SD-WAN also introduces some potential risks, such as:

The reliability and security of the Internet connections, which may vary depending on the location, provider, and traffic conditions.

The compatibility and interoperability of the SD-WAN hardware and software, which may come from different vendors or use different standards.

The availability and quality of the SD-WAN provider’s support, which may depend on the provider’s size, reputation, and outsourcing practices.

In this case, the CISO would most likely identify the risk that the SD-WAN provider uses a third party for support, because this could:

Affect the organization’s ability to resolve issues or request changes in a timely and effective manner.

Expose the organization’s network data and configuration to unauthorized or malicious parties.

Increase the complexity and uncertainty of the SD-WAN service level agreement (SLA) and contract terms.

MITRE ATT&CK is a threat management framework that provides a comprehensive and detailed knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It can help threat hunting teams to identify, understand, and prioritize potential threats, as well as to develop effective detection and response strategies. MITRE ATT&CK covers the entire lifecycle of a cyberattack, from initial access to impact, and provides information on how to mitigate, detect, and hunt for each technique. It also includes threat actor profiles, software descriptions, and data sources that can be used for threat intelligence and analysis. Verified References:

https://attack.mitre.org/

https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/top-threat-modeling-frameworks-stride-owasp-top-10-mitre-attck-framework/

https://www.ibm.com/topics/threat-management

Implementing cloud-based content filtering with sandboxing capabilities is the best solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form. Cloud-based content filtering is a technique that uses a cloud service to filter or block web traffic based on predefined rules or policies, preventing unauthorized or malicious access to web resources or services. Cloud-based content filtering can prevent malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it can scan or analyze email attachments before they reach the mailbox and block or quarantine them if they are malicious. Sandboxing is a technique that uses an isolated or virtualized environment to execute or test suspicious or untrusted code or applications, preventing them from affecting the host system or network. Sandboxing can prevent malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it can run or detonate email attachments in a safe environment and observe their behavior or impact before allowing them to reach the mailbox. Implementing application whitelisting and adding only the email client to the whitelist for laptops in the claims processing department is not a good solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it could affect the usability or functionality of other applications on the laptops that may be needed for work purposes, as well as not prevent malicious software from running within the email client. Requiring all laptops to connect to the VPN (virtual private network) before accessing email is not a good solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it could introduce latency or performance issues for accessing email, as well as not prevent malicious software from reaching or executing on the laptops. Installing a mail gateway to scan incoming messages and strip attachments before they reach the mailbox is not a good solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it could affect the normal operations or functionality of email communication, as well as not prevent legitimate attachments from reaching the mailbox. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cloud-based-content-filtering https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Steganalysis is the process of detecting hidden data in files or media, such as images, audio, or video. One technique of steganalysis is to identify least significant bit encoding, which is a method of hiding data by altering the least significant bits of each byte in a file. For example, a .wav file could contain hidden data encoded in the least significant bits of each audio sample. Steganalysis techniques can help forensic responders to discover hidden evidence or malicious payloads. Breaking a symmetric cipher, determining the frequency of attacks, or maintaining chain of custody are not related to steganalysis. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-steganography https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default -source/resources/casp-content-guide

OWASP is a resource used to identify attack vectors and their mitigations, OVAL is a vulnerability assessment standard

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a source that the security architect could consult to address the security concern of XSS (cross-site scripting) attacks on a web application that uses a database back end. OWASP is a non-profit organization that provides resources and guidance for improving the security of web applications and services. OWASP publishes the OWASP Top 10 list of common web application vulnerabilities and risks, which includes XSS attacks, as well as recommendations and best practices for preventing or mitigating them. SDLC (software development life cycle) is not a source for addressing XSS attacks, but a framework for developing software in an organized and efficient manner. OVAL (Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language) is not a source for addressing XSS attacks, but a standard for expressing system configuration information and vulnerabilities. IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers) is not a source for addressing XSS attacks, but an organization that develops standards for various fields of engineering and technology. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-owasp https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

This is because a risk assessment requires identifying the assets that are valuable to the organization and could be targeted by attackers. A full inventory of information and data assets can help the analyst prioritize the most critical assets and determine their potential exposure to threats. Without knowing what assets are at stake, the analyst cannot effectively assess the risk level or the impact of an attack. Creating an inventory of assets is also a prerequisite for performing other actions, such as following compliance standards, measuring availability, or conducting penetration tests.

OVAL (Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language) is a standard that would be best suited for creating checks for a zero-day vulnerability in an organization’s internally developed software. OVAL is a standard for expressing system configuration information and vulnerabilities in an XML format, allowing interoperability and automation among different security tools and platforms. An engineer can use OVAL to create definitions or tests for specific vulnerabilities or states in the software, and then use OVAL-compatible tools to scan or evaluate the software against those definitions or tests. ARF (Asset Reporting Format) is not a standard for creating checks for vulnerabilities, but a standard for expressing information about assets and their characteristics in an XML format, allowing interoperability and automation among different security tools and platforms. ISACs (Information Sharing and Analysis Centers) are not standards for creating checks for vulnerabilities, but organizations that collect, analyze, and disseminate information about threats, vulnerabilities, incidents, or best practices among different sectors or communities. Node.js is not a standard for creating checks for vulnerabilities, but a runtime environment that allows executing JavaScript code outside of a web browser, enabling the development of scalable web applications or services. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-oval https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information while it is at rest and in transit. PCI DSS is a standard that defines the security requirements and best practices for organizations that process, store, or transmit credit card information, such as merchants, service providers, or acquirers. PCI DSS aims to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of credit card information and prevent fraud or identity theft. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology) is not a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information, but an agency that develops standards, guidelines, and recommendations for various fields of science and technology, including cybersecurity. GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) is not a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information, but a regulation that defines the data protection and privacy rights and obligations for individuals and organizations in the European Union or the European Economic Area. ISO (International Organization for Standardization) is not a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information, but an organization that develops standards for various fields of science and technology, including information security. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-pci-dss https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

DRM (digital rights management) is a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by restricting the access, use, modification, or distribution of digital content or devices. DRM can use encryption, authentication, licensing, watermarking, or other methods to enforce the rights and permissions granted by the content owner or provider to authorized users or devices. DRM can prevent unauthorized copying, sharing, or piracy of digital content, such as software, music, movies, or books. Watermarking is not a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by itself, but a technique that can embed identifying information or marks in digital content or media, such as images, audio, or video. Watermarking can help prove ownership or origin of digital content, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or use of it. NDA (non-disclosure agreement) is not a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by itself, but a legal contract that binds parties to keep certain information confidential and not disclose it to unauthorized parties. NDA can help protect sensitive or proprietary information from exposure or misuse, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or use of it. Access logging is not a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by itself, but a technique that can record the activities or events related to accessing data or resources. Access logging can help monitor or audit access to data or resources, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or use of them. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-drm https://partners.compt ia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

https://eklitzke.org/memory-protection-and-aslr

ASLR (Address Space Layout Randomization) is a technology that can mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. ASLR randomizes the location of memory segments, such as the stack, heap, or libraries, making it harder for an attacker to predict or control where to inject malicious code or overwrite memory segments. NX bit (No-eXecute bit) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. NX bit marks certain memory segments as non-executable, preventing an attacker from running code in those segments. DEP (Data Execution Prevention) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. DEP uses hardware and software mechanisms to mark certain memory regions as data-only, preventing an attacker from running code in those regions. HSM (Hardware Security Module) is a device that can provide cryptographic functions and key storage, but it does not mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-aslr https://p artners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The main rights for individuals under the GDPR are to:

allow subject access

have inaccuracies corrected

have information erased

prevent direct marketing

prevent automated decision-making and profiling

allow data portability (as per the paragraph above)

source: https://www.clouddirect.net/11-things-you-mus t-do-now-for-gdpr-compliance/

These are two of the requirements of the GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation), which is a legal framework that sets guidelines for the collection and processing of personal data of individuals within the European Union (EU). The GDPR also requires data controllers to obtain consent from data subjects, protect data with appropriate security measures, notify data subjects and authorities of data breaches, and appoint a data protection officer.

A screened subnet is a network segment that separates two different environments, such as ОТ (operational technology) and IT (information technology), and provides security controls to limit and monitor the traffic between them. This would allow the business to get the required reports from the historian server without exposing the ОТ environment to unnecessary risks. Using a VPN, allowing IT traffic, or allowing PLCs to send data are less secure options that could compromise the ОТ environment. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-operational-technology https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resou rces/casp-content-guide

The security analyst should remove the cipher TLS_DHE_DSS_WITH_RC4_128_SHA to support the business requirements, as it is considered weak and vulnerable to on-path attacks. RC4 is an outdated stream cipher that has been deprecated by major browsers and protocols due to its flaws and weaknesses. The other ciphers are more secure and compliant with secure-by-design principles and PCI DSS. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-cipher https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The output shows a SQL injection attack that is trying to exploit a web application. A WAF (Web Application Firewall) is a security solution that can detect and block malicious web requests, such as SQL injection, XSS, CSRF, etc. Placing a WAF inline would prevent the attack from reaching the web server and database. References: https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/SQL_Injection https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/ddos/glossary/web-application-firewall-waf/

A SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) solution is a software platform that can automate the detection and response of known threats, such as ransomware, phishing, or denial-of-service attacks. A SOAR solution can also integrate with other security tools, such as IPS, NGFW, SIEM, and threat feeds, to provide a comprehensive and dynamic security posture. A SOAR solution would best satisfy the requirements of the online file hosting service, because it would:

Remediate threats to customer data integrity and availability first, by automatically applying predefined actions or workflows based on the severity and type of the threat.

Allow the environment to be dynamic to match increasing customer demands, by scaling up or down the security resources and processes as needed.

Not interfere with customers’ ability to access their data at anytime, by minimizing the human intervention and downtime required for threat response.

Enable security analysts to focus on high-risk items, by reducing the manual tasks and alert fatigue associated with threat detection and response.

 Disabling file exchange can help to minimize data leakage by preventing users from sharing sensitive documents or data through the videoconferencing platform. Enabling watermarking can help to maintain customer trust and ensure non-repudiation by adding a visible or invisible mark to the video stream that identifies the source or owner of the content. Enabling the user authentication requirement can help to secure the videoconferencing sessions by verifying the identity of the participants and preventing unauthorized access. Verified References:

https://www.rev.com/blog/marketing/follow-these-7-video-conferencing-security-best-practices

https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/blog/2020/04/network-video-conferencing-security/

https://www.megameeting.com/news/best-practices-secure-video-conferencing/

Purchasing one wildcard certificate is the best solution to protect multiple websites hosted by an organization in a cloud-hosted WAF. A wildcard certificate is a type of SSL/TLS certificate that can secure a domain name and any number of its subdomains with a single certificate. For example, a wildcard certificate for *.mycompany.com can secure www.mycompany.com, campus.mycompany.com, and any other subdomain under mycompany.com. A wildcard certificate can save costs and simplify management compared to purchasing individual certificates for each website.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 301]

A secrets management tool is a tool that helps companies securely store, transmit, and manage sensitive digital authentication credentials such as passwords, keys, tokens, certificates, and other secrets. A secrets management tool can help prevent secrets sprawl, enforce business policies, and inject secrets into pipelines. A secrets management tool can also help protect secrets from unauthorized access, leakage, or compromise by using encryption, tokenization, access control, auditing, and rotation. A secrets management tool is a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it can provide a centralized and consistent way to manage secrets across multiple containers and environments.

B. Saving secrets in key escrow is not a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it does not address the operational challenges of managing secrets for containers. Key escrow is a process of storing cryptographic keys with a trusted third party that can release them under certain conditions. Key escrow can be useful for backup or recovery purposes, but it does not provide the same level of security and automation as a secrets management tool.

C. Storing the secrets inside the Dockerfiles is not a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it exposes the secrets to anyone who can access the Dockerfiles or the images built from them. Storing secrets inside the Dockerfiles is equivalent to hardcoding them into the application code, which is a bad practice that violates the principle of least privilege and increases the risk of secrets leakage or compromise.

D. Running all Dockerfiles in a randomized namespace is not a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it does not address the issue of storing and managing secrets for containers. Running Dockerfiles in a randomized namespace is a technique to avoid name conflicts and collisions between containers, but it does not provide any security benefits for secrets.

Field masking is a technique that hides or obscures part of the information in a data field, such as a password, credit card number, or social security number. Field masking can be used to protect sensitive or confidential data from unauthorized access or disclosure, while still allowing authorized users to view or verify the data.

Field masking should be implemented to authenticate employees who call in remotely by allowing the help desk staff to view partial information about employees, because field masking would:

Enable the help desk staff to verify the identity of the employees by asking them to provide some characters or digits from their data fields, such as their employee ID or email address.

Prevent the help desk staff from viewing the full information about employees, which may be considered sensitive and subject to privacy regulations or policies.

Reduce the risk of data leakage, theft, or misuse by limiting the exposure of sensitive data to only those who need it.

The company should use CASB for OAuth application permission control to help prevent this type of attack in the future. CASB stands for cloud access security broker, which is a software tool that monitors and enforces security policies for cloud applications. CASB can help control which third-party applications can access the company’s cloud file storage service and what permissions they have. CASB can also detect and block any unauthorized or malicious applications that try to access the company’s data. Verified References:

https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/threats/how-to-avoid-social-engineering-attacks

https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/ethical-hacking/understanding-preventing-social-engineering-attacks/

https://www.indusface.com/blog/10-ways-businesses-can-prevent-social-engineering-attacks/

OCSP stapling is a solution that allows the web server to provide a time-stamped OCSP response signed by the CA along with the certificate during the TLS handshake, eliminating the need for the client to contact the CA separately to validate the certificate. OCSP stapling can reduce the delay caused by the certificate validation process by saving a round-trip between the client and the CA. It can also improve the security and privacy of the certificate validation by preventing potential attacks or tracking by malicious third parties. Verified References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/OCSP_stapling

https://www.digicert.com/knowledgebase/ssl-certificates/ssl-general-topics/what-is-ocsp-stapling.html

https://www.entrust.com/knowledgebase/ssl/online-certificate-status-protocol-ocsp-stapling

The indicator that shows when a company might not be viable after a disaster is the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD). MTD is the maximum amount of time that a business process or function can be disrupted without causing unacceptable consequences for the organization. MTD is a key metric for business continuity planning and disaster recovery, as it helps determine the recovery time objective (RTO) and the recovery point objective (RPO) for each process or function. If the actual downtime exceeds the MTD, the organization may face severe losses, reputational damage, regulatory penalties, or even bankruptcy. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdisasterrecovery/definition/maximum-tolerable-downtime

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdisasterrecovery/definition/recovery-time-objective

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdisasterrecovery/definition/recovery-point-objective

OPC (Open Platform Communications) and Modbus are two common protocols used for industrial control systems (ICS). OPC is a standard that allows different devices and applications to exchange data in a vendor-neutral way. Modbus is a serial communication protocol that enables devices to send and receive commands and data over a network. Modbus has two variants: Modbus TCP/IP, which uses TCP port 502 for communication, and Modbus RTU/ASCII, which uses serial ports.

To allow an OPC server to communicate with a Modbus server that is controlling electrical relays, the security engineer should recommend restricting inbound traffic so that only the OPC server is permitted to reach the Modbus server on port 502. This configuration would:

Permit the OPC server to send commands and data to the Modbus server using Modbus TCP/IP protocol over port 502.

Limit operational disruptions, by preventing unauthorized or malicious access to the Modbus server from other sources.

Due to the limitations within the Modbus protocol, such as lack of encryption and authentication, restricting inbound traffic is a necessary security measure to protect the integrity and availability of the ICS.

Order of volatility is a procedure that a computer forensics examiner must follow during evidence collection. It refers to the order in which digital evidence is collected, starting with the most volatile and moving to the least volatile. Volatile data is data that is not permanent and is easily lost, such as data in memory when you turn off a computer. The security analyst should have followed the order of volatility to preserve the most fragile evidence first, such as the malicious script running as a background process, before turning off the infected machine. Verified References:

https://www.computer-forensics-recruiter.com/order-of-volatility/

https://www.sans.org/blog/best-practices-in-digital-evidence-collection/

https://blogs.getcertifiedgetahead.com/order-of-volatility/

Input validation is a technique that checks the user input for any errors, malicious data, or unexpected values before processing it by the application. Input validation can prevent many common web application attacks, such as:

SQL injection, which exploits a vulnerability in the application’s database query to execute malicious SQL commands.

Cross-site scripting (XSS), which injects malicious JavaScript code into the application’s web page to execute on the client-side browser.

Directory traversal, which accesses files or directories outside of the intended scope by manipulating the file path.

In this case, the security engineer should recommend input validation as the best mitigation technique, because it would:

Prevent the exfiltration of a company report by validating the file parameter in the URL and ensuring that it matches a predefined list of allowed files or formats.

Enhance the security of the web application by filtering out any malicious or invalid input from users or attackers.

Be more effective and efficient than other techniques, such as firewall, WAF (Web Application Firewall), or DLP (Data Loss Prevention), which may not be able to detect or block all types of web application attacks.

The EDR output shows the process tree of the ransomware infection. The root node is NO-AV.exe, which is a malicious executable that disables antivirus software and downloads the DearCry ransomware. The NO-AV.exe process was launched on cpt-ws026 by a user named John. The DearCry.exe process was then launched on cpt-ws026 by NO-AV.exe and propagated to other devices via SMB. Therefore, the ransomware originated from cpt-ws026 and NO-AV.exe. Verified References:

https://www.microsoft.com/security/blog/2021/03/12/analyzing-dearcry-ransomware-the-first-attack-to-exploit-exchange-server-vulnerabilities/

https://www.crowdstrike.com/blog/dearcry-ransomware-analysis/

A static code analyzer is a tool that analyzes computer software without actually running the software. A static code analyzer can help developers find and fix vulnerabilities, bugs, and security risks in their new applications while the source code is in its ‘static’ state. A static code analyzer can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities by checking the code against a set of coding rules, standards, and best practices. A static code analyzer can also help improve the code quality, performance, and maintainability.

A. An open-source automation server is not a tool that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. An open-source automation server is a tool that automates various tasks related to software development and delivery, such as building, testing, deploying, and monitoring. An open-source automation server can help speed up the CI/CD pipeline, but it does not analyze or improve the code itself.

C. Trusted open-source libraries are not tools that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. Trusted open-source libraries are collections of reusable code that developers can use to implement common or complex functionalities in their applications. Trusted open-source libraries can help save time and effort for developers, but they do not guarantee that the code is free of defects or vulnerabilities.

D. A single code repository for all developers is not a tool that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. A single code repository for all developers is a centralized storage location where developers can access and manage their source code files. A single code repository for all developers can help facilitate collaboration and version control, but it does not analyze or improve the code itself.

https://www.comparitech.co m/net-admin/best-static-code-analysis-tools/

https://www.perforce.com/blog/sca/what-static-analysis

OS credential dumping is the process of obtaining account login and password information, normally in the form of a hash or a clear text password, from the operating system and software. System information discovery is the process of gathering information about the system, such as hostname, IP address, OS version, running processes, etc. Both of these techniques are commonly used by adversaries to gain access to sensitive data and resources on the target system. The command shown in the image is using Mimikatz, a tool that can dump credentials from memory, and also querying the system information using WMIC. Verified References:

https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1003/

https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1082/

https://github.com/gentilkiwi/mimikatz

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/win32/wmisdk/wmic

A regular expression (regex) is a sequence of characters that defines a search pattern for matching text. A regex can be used to detect the presence of a malicious piece of software communicating with its command-and-control server by matching the indicators of compromise (IOC) in the network traffic.

In this case, the systems administrator should use the regex Host: [a-z]*.malicious.com to determine if any of the company hosts are compromised, while reducing false positives, because this regex would:

Match the Host header in the HTTP request, which specifies the domain name of the command-and-control server.

Allow any subdomain under the malicious.com domain, by using the character class [a-z]*, which matches zero or more lowercase letters.

Escape the dot character in the domain name, by using the backslash , which prevents it from being interpreted as a wildcard that matches any character.

Not match any other parts of the IOC that could change, such as the URL path, the User-Agent header, or the HTTP method.

Deploying a web application firewall (WAF) signature is a way to detect and block attempts to exploit the Heartbleed vulnerability on the web server. A WAF signature is a pattern that matches a known attack vector, such as a malicious heartbeat request. By deploying a WAF signature, the company can protect its web application from Heartbleed attacks until the underlying vulnerability is fixed.

Updating the OpenSSL library is the ultimate way to fix and mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability. The OpenSSL project released version 1.0.1g on April 7, 2014, which patched the bug by adding a bounds check to the heartbeat function. By updating the OpenSSL library on the web server, the company can eliminate the vulnerability and prevent any future exploitation.

B. Fixing the PHP code is not a way to resolve or mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability, because the vulnerability is not in the PHP code, but in the OpenSSL library that handles the SSL/TLS encryption for the web server.

C. Changing the web server from HTTPS to HTTP is not a way to resolve or mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability, because it would expose all the web traffic to eavesdropping and tampering by attackers. HTTPS provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for web communications, and should not be disabled for security reasons.

D. Using SSLv3 is not a way to resolve or mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability, because SSLv3 is an outdated and insecure protocol that has been deprecated and replaced by TLS. SSLv3 does not support modern cipher suites, encryption algorithms, or security features, and is vulnerable to various attacks, such as POODLE.

E. Changing the code from PHP to ColdFusion is not a way to resolve or mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability, because the vulnerability is not related to the programming language of the web application, but to the OpenSSL library that handles the SSL/TLS encryption for the web server.

https://owasp.org/www-community/vulnerabilities/Heartbleed_Bug

https://heartbleed.com/

The methods that can be used to protect user internet privacy, to ensure the connection is encrypted, and to keep user activity hidden are proxy and MAC address randomization. A proxy is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and the internet, hiding the user’s IP address and location from websites and other online services. A proxy can also encrypt the connection between the user and the proxy server, preventing anyone from snooping on the user’s traffic. MAC address randomization is a feature that changes the MAC address of a mobile device periodically or when connecting to different networks. A MAC address is a unique identifier of a network interface that can be used to track the device’s location and activity. MAC address randomization can help protect the user’s privacy by making it harder for third parties to link the device to a specific user or network. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/proxy-server

https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/MAC-address-randomization

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/MAC-address-Media-Access-Control-address

A downgrade attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack that forces two hosts to use an older or weaker version of the TLS protocol or its parameters. The attacker does this by replacing or deleting the STARTTLS command or exploiting the compatibility features of the protocol. The purpose of the attack is to create a pathway for enabling a cryptographic attack that would not be possible in case of a connection that is encrypted over the latest version of TLS protocol. The IOC shows that most client connections are renegotiated after establishing the connections, which could indicate that an entity is performing downgrade attacks on path by interfering with the initial handshake and making the client and server agree on a lower version of TLS or a weaker cipher suite. Verified References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Downgrade_attack

https://crypto.stackexchange.com/questions/10493/why-is-tls-susceptible-to-protocol-downgrade-attacks

https://venafi.com/blog/preventing-downgrade-attacks/

Law enforcement officials informed an organization that an investigation has begun. Which of the following is the FIRST step the organization should take?

Initiate a legal hold.

Refer to the retention policy

Perform e-discovery.

Review the subpoena

Answer: A

A legal hold is a process by which an organization instructs its employees or other relevant parties to preserve specific data for potential litigation. A legal hold is triggered when litigation is reasonably anticipated, such as when law enforcement officials inform an organization that an investigation has begun. The first step the organization should take is to initiate a legal hold to ensure that relevant evidence is not deleted, destroyed, or altered. A legal hold also demonstrates the organization’s good faith and compliance with its duty to preserve evidence. Verified References:

https://percipient.co/litigation-hold-triggers-and-the-duty-to-preserve-evidence/

https://www.everlaw.com/blog/ediscovery-best-practices/guide-to-legal-holds/

The company should implement OCSP stapling and HSTS to improve TLS performance and enforce HTTPS. OCSP stapling is a technique that allows a server to provide a signed proof of the validity of its certificate along with the TLS handshake, instead of relying on the client to contact the certificate authority (CA) for verification. This can reduce the latency and bandwidth of the TLS handshake, as well as improve the privacy and security of the certificate status. HSTS stands for HTTP Strict Transport Security, which is a mechanism that instructs browsers to only use HTTPS when connecting to a website, and to reject any unencrypted or invalid connections. This can prevent downgrade attacks, man-in-the-middle attacks, and mixed content errors, as well as improve the performance of HTTPS connections by avoiding unnecessary redirects. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/OCSP-stapling

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/HTTP-Strict-Transport-Security

https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/ssl/what-is-hsts/

Remote access services deployed using vendor-diverse redundancy with event response driven by playbooks is the best solution to meet the requirements. Vendor-diverse redundancy means using different vendors or technologies to provide the same service or function, which can increase the availability and resilience of the service. For example, if one vendor’s VPN solution fails due to a zero-day vulnerability, another vendor’s VPN solution can take over without affecting the users. Event response driven by playbooks means using predefined workflows or scripts to automate the actions or decisions that need to be taken in response to certain events or triggers. For example, a playbook can define how to switch between different remote access solutions based on certain criteria or conditions, such as performance, availability, security, or manual input. Playbooks can also be integrated with SOAR platforms to leverage their capabilities for orchestration, automation, and response. Verified References:

https://cyware.com/security-guides/security-orchestration-automation-and-response/what-is-vendor-agnostic-security-orchestration-automation-and-response-soar-40e4

https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cyberpedia/what-is-a-security-playbook

The company should use an additional layer of encryption to secure the data from theft when moving to a CSP. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key. Encryption can protect the data from unauthorized access or modification during transit and at rest. Encryption can be applied at different levels, such as disk, file, or application. An additional layer of encryption can provide an extra security measure on top of the encryption provided by the CSP. Verified References:

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/partner-center/transition-seat-based-services

https://cloud.google.com/architecture/patterns-for-connecting-other-csps-with-gcp

In a PaaS implementation, the provider offers relief to the organization’s teams by sharing in many of the operational duties related to the application/platform software. The provider is responsible for securing and maintaining the underlying infrastructure, operating systems, middleware, runtime environments, and other software components that support the platform and the applications running on it. The provider also handles tasks such as patching, updating, scaling, and backing up the platform software.

A. Application-specific data assets are the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization owns and controls its own data and must ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability. The organization must also comply with any applicable data protection laws and regulations.

B. Application user access management is the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization must define and enforce its own policies and procedures for granting, revoking, and monitoring access to its applications and data. The organization must also ensure that its users follow security best practices such as strong passwords and multifactor authentication.

C. Application-specific logic and code are the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization must develop, test, deploy, and manage its own applications using the tools and services provided by the platform. The organization must also ensure that its applications are secure, reliable, and performant.

https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/feature/The-cloud-shared-responsibility-model-for-IaaS-PaaS-and-SaaS

SaaS, or software as a service, is the solution that can best fulfill the requirements of having the lowest RTO possible, the least shared responsibility possible, and patching as a responsibility of the CSP. SaaS is a cloud service model that provides users with access to software applications hosted and managed by the CSP over the internet. SaaS has the lowest RTO (recovery time objective), which is the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption, because it does not require any installation, configuration, or maintenance by the users. SaaS also has the least shared responsibility possible because most of the security aspects are handled by the CSP, such as patching, updating, backup, encryption, authentication, etc.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, pages 403-404]

A tabletop exercise is a type of testing plan that is used to discuss disaster recovery scenarios with representatives from multiple departments within an incident response team but without taking any invasive actions. A tabletop exercise is a simulation of a potential disaster or incident that involves a verbal or written discussion of how each department would respond to it. The purpose of a tabletop exercise is to identify gaps, weaknesses, or conflicts in the disaster recovery plan, and to improve communication and coordination among the team members.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 455]

The browser is the application that the security analyst should patch first, given that all the applications have equally high CVSS scores. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a method for measuring the severity of vulnerabilities based on various factors, such as access conditions, impact, and exploitability. CVSS scores range from 0 to 10, with higher scores indicating higher severity. However, CVSS scores alone are not sufficient to determine the patching priority, as they do not account for other factors, such as the likelihood of exploitation, the exposure of the system, or the criticality of the data. Therefore, the security analyst should also consider the context and the risk of each application when deciding which one to patch first. In this case, the browser is likely to be the most exposed and frequently used application by the network administrator, and also the most likely entry point for an attacker to compromise the system or access the SSO web portal. Therefore, patching the browser first can reduce the risk of a successful attack and protect the system and the data from further damage. Verified References:

https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss

https://www.darkreading.com/risk/vulnerability-severity-scores-make-for-poor-patching-priority-researchers-find

Wireless network auto joining is the mobile configuration setting that the mobile administrator is verifying by reviewing the mobile device DHCP logs. Wireless network auto joining is a feature that allows mobile devices to automatically connect to a predefined wireless network without requiring user intervention or authentication. This can be useful for corporate or trusted networks that need frequent access by mobile devices. The DHCP logs show that the mobile devices are assigned IP addresses from the wireless network with SSID “CorpWiFi”, which indicates that they are auto joining this network.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 420]

Threat emulation is the method that should be used to test an incident response playbook for insider attacks. Threat emulation is a technique that simulates real-world attacks using realistic scenarios, tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of threat actors. Threat emulation can help evaluate the effectiveness of an incident response plan by testing how well it can detect, respond to, contain, eradicate, recover from, and learn from an attack.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 461]

The change control board (CCB) is a committee that consists of subject matter experts and managers who decide whether to implement proposed changes to a project. The change control board is part of the change management plan, which defines the roles and processes for managing change within a team or organization. The change control board must review and approve a submission for any change request that affects the scope, schedule, budget, quality, or risks of the project. The change control board evaluates the impact and benefits of the change request and decides whether to accept, reject, or defer it.

A. The implementation engineer requesting direct approval from the systems engineer and the Chief Information Security Officer is not a correct process for requesting updates or corrections to the client’s systems, because it bypasses the change control board and the project manager. This could lead to unauthorized changes that could compromise the project’s objectives and deliverables.

C. The information system security officer providing the systems engineer with the system updates is not a correct process for requesting updates or corrections to the client’s systems, because it does not involve the change control board or the project manager. This could lead to unauthorized changes that could introduce security vulnerabilities or conflicts with other system components.

D. The security engineer asking the project manager to review the updates for the client’s system is not a correct process for requesting updates or corrections to the client’s systems, because it does not involve the change control board. The project manager is responsible for facilitating the change management process, but not for approving or rejecting change requests.

https://www.projectmanager.com/blog/change-control-board-roles-responsibilities-processes

The consultant should use the customer-provided VDI solution to perform work on the customer’s environment. VDI stands for virtual desktop infrastructure, which is a technology that allows users to access a virtual desktop hosted on a remote server. VDI can help meet the customer’s requirements by ensuring that all customer data remains under the customer’s control at all times, that third-party access to the customer environment is controlled by the customer, and that authentication credentials and access control are under the customer’s control. Verified References:

https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/threats/how-to-avoid-social-engineering-attacks

https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/ethical-hacking/understanding-preventing-social-engineering-attacks/

https://www.indusface.com/blog/10-ways-businesses-can-prevent-social-engineering-attacks/

Reviewing video from IP cameras within the facility would be the most likely process to expose an attacker who has compromised an air-gapped system. Since air-gapped systems are isolated from external networks, an attacker would need physical access to the system or use some covert channel to communicate with it. Video surveillance could reveal any unauthorized or suspicious activity within the facility that could be related to the attack. Verified References:

https://www.welivesecurity.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/eset_jumping_the_air_gap_wp.pdf

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Air-Gap_Malware

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/essentialguide/How-air-gap-attacks-challenge-the-notion-of-secure-networks

Containerization is a technology that allows applications to run in isolated and portable environments called containers. Containers are lightweight and self-contained units that include all the dependencies, libraries, and configuration files needed for an application to run. Containers can be deployed on any platform that supports the container runtime engine, such as Docker or Kubernetes.

Containerization would allow the company to refactor a monolithic application to take advantage of cloud native services and service microsegmentation to secure sensitive application components, because containerization would:

Enable the application to be split into smaller and independent components (microservices) that can communicate with each other through APIs or message queues.

Allow the application to leverage cloud native services, such as load balancers, databases, or serverless functions, that can be integrated with containers through configuration files or environment variables.

Enhance the security of the application by isolating each container from other containers and the host system, and applying fine-grained access control policies and network rules to each container or group of containers.

Ensure the portability of the application by enabling it to run on any cloud provider or platform that supports containers, without requiring any changes to the application code or configuration.

VPN Concentrator:

AAA Server:

One of the known security concerns with the Distributed Network Protocol version 3 (DNP3), which is used in SCADA systems, is the lack of built-in security features, including authentication. This means that by default, it does not verify the identity of the entities communicating, making it susceptible to unauthorized access and commands.

The most likely cause of the error is the failure of TPM authentication. TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, which is a hardware component that stores encryption keys and other security information. TPM can be used by BitLocker to protect the encryption keys and verify the integrity of the boot process. If TPM fails to authenticate the laptop, BitLocker will enter recovery mode and ask for a recovery PIN, which is a 48-digit numerical password that can be used to unlock the system. The administrator should check the TPM status and configuration and make sure it is working properly. Verified References:

https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/finding-your-bitlocker-recovery-key-in-windows-6b71ad27-0b89-ea08-f143-056f5ab347d6

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/operating-system-security/data-protection/bitlocker/bitlocker-recovery-guide-plan

https://docs.sophos.com/esg/sgn/8-1/user/win/en-us/esg/SafeGuard-Enterprise/tasks/BitLockerRecoveryKey.html

Due care refers to the effort made by an ordinarily prudent or reasonable party to avoid harm to another party. By not reporting the gaps in the inventory system, the assessor is neglecting their responsibility and not exercising the due care that is expected of them, which could lead to legal ramifications for non-compliance or other security breaches.

Step by Step Explanation:

CI/CD pipeline (Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment) automates the testing, including vulnerability scanning, for every code commit before deploying to production.

Code repository stores the code but does not handle scanning.

Integrated development environment (IDE) aids developers in writing and testing code but does not enforce automated scanning.

Container orchestrator manages container deployment but does not directly address pre-production scanning.

Regular operating system patching is critical to mitigating vulnerabilities. When a Snort IDS rule is provided to identify a CVE, it typically means there is a known vulnerability that can be exploited. Keeping systems updated with the latest patches helps to close off these vulnerabilities and protect against exploitation.

For a successful Data Loss Prevention (DLP) strategy, the first step is data classification. Data classification involves identifying and categorizing data based on its sensitivity and importance, which allows the DLP system to apply appropriate security controls to protect critical or sensitive information. Without proper data classification, it is difficult to implement effective DLP policies. While tokenization, network traffic analysis, and multifactor authentication can contribute to data security, classification is fundamental to building a targeted and effective DLP strategy. CASP+ highlights the importance of identifying and categorizing data as a key part of securing sensitive information and preventing data breaches.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 3.0 – Enterprise Security Architecture (Data Loss Prevention and Data Classification)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: DLP Strategies and Data Classification

Step by Step Explanation:

Drive encryption protects sensitive data at rest by ensuring unauthorized access cannot expose the data if the physical endpoint is compromised.

Patch management is a necessary security control but does not specifically address endpoint hardening for sensitive data.

Event logging aids in monitoring and incident detection but does not directly harden endpoints.

Resource monitoring manages system performance and availability but is unrelated to data security.

PowerShell is a versatile scripting language that can be used to automate administrative tasks and configurations on Windows machines. It has the capability to edit registry keys, which is what the red team appears to have done based on the provided information. PowerShell is a common tool used by both system administrators and attackers (in the form of a red team during penetration testing).

The primary risk for an organization working with vendors in different time zones is that support might not be available during the organization's regular business hours. This can lead to delays in receiving necessary support or assistance when equipment issues arise, which could be critical if there's an equipment failure.

Foremost is a file-carving tool designed to recover specific file types, including PDFs, from disk images. It is well-suited for this task because it can search a disk image for the headers and footers that define the start and end of a particular file type, which is essential for recovering documents like PDFs.

Step by Step Explanation:

IAST (Interactive Application Security Testing): Combines both dynamic and static testing techniques and is highly suited for securing SaaS applications by providing insights into runtime and code-level issues.

DAST (Dynamic Application Security Testing): Focuses on runtime vulnerabilities but lacks code-level analysis.

SAST (Static Application Security Testing): Analyzes source code but does not address runtime vulnerabilities.

ZAP (OWASP ZAP) is a DAST tool similar to Burp Suite, providing redundant functionality rather than new protections.

Identifying the security boundary is an essential first step in a risk assessment process as it defines the scope of the assessment. It delineates the environment where the risk assessment will take place and sets the limits for what assets, systems, and processes will be included in the assessment.

The scan output in line 06 indicates that OCSP Must-Staple is not supported. This vulnerability exposes the application to attacks where an attacker can exploit the trust relationship between the client and the server by forging certificate revocation statuses. When OCSP stapling is not enforced, a client cannot reliably check if a certificate has been revoked, potentially allowing attackers to exploit this gap. CASP+ discusses the importance of certificate validation mechanisms such as OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol) to prevent man-in-the-middle and trust-exploiting attacks.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Certificate Validation, OCSP)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Secure Web Services and Trust Relationships

The incident response cycle's preparation phase includes establishing policies and procedures for reporting lost or stolen devices promptly. If an employee's device was missing for 96 hours before being reported, this indicates a lack of awareness or clear procedures on the employee's part, pointing to inadequacies in the preparation phase of the incident response.

Proper forensic investigation requires that evidence is preserved in a manner that maintains its integrity and reliability. To prevent legal issues such as penalties for not conducting a proper forensic investigation, the first and most crucial step is to ensure that evidence is preserved so that it can be verified, collected, and analyzed correctly. This involves making sure that the evidence is not tampered with or altered from the time it is identified until it is presented in a legal proceeding.

A next-generation firewall (NGFW) is a device or software that provides advanced network security features beyond the traditional firewall functions. A NGFW can provide the following capabilities:

Recognize and block fake websites, using URL filtering and reputation-based analysis

Decrypt and scan encrypted traffic on standard and non-standard ports, using SSL/TLS inspection and deep packet inspection

Use multiple engines for detection and prevention, such as antivirus, intrusion prevention system (IPS), application control, and sandboxing

Have central reporting, using a unified management console and dashboard A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a device or software that acts as an intermediary between cloud service users and cloud service providers. A CASB can provide various security functions such as visibility, compliance, data security, and threat protection, but it does not provide all the capabilities of a NGFW. Web filtering is a technique that blocks or allows web access based on predefined criteria such as categories, keywords, or reputation. Web filtering can help recognize and block fake websites, but it does not provide all the capabilities of a NGFW. Endpoint detection and response (EDR) is a technology that monitors and analyzes the activity and behavior of endpoints such as computers or mobile devices. EDR can help detect and respond to advanced threats, but it does not provide all the capabilities of a NGFW. References: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2: Enterprise Security Architecture, Objective 2.2: Select appropriate hardware and software solutions

The source code in this scenario uses insecure functions like strcpy which are known for not checking buffer sizes, leading to buffer overflow vulnerabilities. The most effective solution is to update the company’s secure coding policy to prohibit the use of insecure functions and replace them with safer alternatives, such as strncpy, which enforces buffer length checks. Integrating this change into the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) ensures that future code adheres to secure practices, thereby reducing the risk of vulnerabilities being introduced into production systems. This approach aligns with CASP+ guidelines that emphasize secure coding practices and policies to prevent common security flaws in software development.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Secure Coding Standards)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Secure Coding and Prevention of Buffer Overflows

Before migrating previously isolated systems to the cloud, it is essential to perform patching and hardening. These systems may have been neglected while isolated, so updating them with the latest security patches and applying hardening measures (such as disabling unnecessary services and implementing strict access controls) is crucial to reduce vulnerabilities. This ensures that the systems are secure before they are exposed to the wider cloud environment. CASP+ emphasizes the importance of securing systems through patch management and hardening before integrating them into more exposed environments like the cloud.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Patching, Hardening, and Cloud Migration Security)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Securing and Hardening Systems Before Cloud Migration

To prevent similar issues from occurring again, the CISO should create an effective communication plan and ensure all employees are aware of it. A clear communication plan ensures that critical security information, such as breaches or vulnerabilities, is promptly communicated to the right stakeholders (e.g., the CEO) in a timely manner, preventing situations where the media reports on breaches before internal teams are fully informed. CASP+ emphasizes the importance of having structured communication protocols during security incidents to ensure accurate and timely responses.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Incident Communication Plans)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Developing and Implementing Effective Incident Communication Plans

Two-factor authentication (2FA) adds an additional layer of security by requiring two forms of identification before granting access to an account or system. Implementing 2FA can significantly reduce the risk of unauthorized access, even if passwords are weak or compromised.

Software composition analysis (SCA) is the most effective method to mitigate third-party risks in a software supply chain. SCA tools analyze the open-source and third-party components used in software development to identify known vulnerabilities, outdated dependencies, or licensing issues. By integrating SCA into the development environment, the company can proactively address risks related to external libraries or codebases that may introduce vulnerabilities into the software supply chain. CASP+ emphasizes the importance of securing the supply chain, particularly by identifying and addressing risks introduced by third-party software components.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 3.0 – Enterprise Security Architecture (Third-Party Risk Management)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Securing Software Supply Chains with SCA

Step by Step Explanation:

Dynamic analysis involves testing the application while it is running to identify vulnerabilities present during execution, providing the most exhaustive runtime vulnerability detection.

Input validation is a specific security control, not a method for exhaustive testing.

Side-channel analysis examines unintended information leakage but does not comprehensively assess runtime vulnerabilities.

Fuzz testing is a specific technique within dynamic analysis but does not ensure exhaustive coverage.

Static analysis examines code without execution, missing runtime-specific vulnerabilities.

To meet the contractual requirements of the web service provider, a security engineer should recommend the following actions:

Deploying a content delivery network (CDN): A CDN is a distributed system of servers that delivers web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the content, and the performance of the network. A CDN can help improve the uptime, load time, and response time of web services by caching content closer to the users, reducing latency and bandwidth consumption. A CDN can also help mitigate distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks by absorbing or filtering malicious traffic before it reaches the origin servers, reducing the impact on the web service availability12.

Implementing server clusters: A server cluster is a group of servers that work together to provide high availability, scalability, and load balancing for web services. A server cluster can help improve the uptime, load time, and response time of web services by distributing the workload across multiple servers, reducing the risk of single points of failure and performance bottlenecks. A server cluster can also help recover from failures by automatically switching to another server in case of a malfunction34.

Lowering storage input/output (I/O): Storage I/O is the amount of data that can be read from or written to a storage device in a given time. Storage I/O can affect the performance of web services by limiting the speed of data transfer between the servers and the storage devices. Lowering storage I/O can help improve the load time and response time of web services by reducing the latency and congestion of data access. Lowering storage I/O can be achieved by using faster storage devices, such as solid-state drives (SSDs), optimizing the storage layout and configuration, such as using RAID or striping, and caching frequently accessed data in memory5 .

Installing a firewall at corporate headquarters is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. A firewall is a device or software that filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can help improve the security of web services by preventing unauthorized access and attacks, but it may also introduce additional latency and complexity to the network.

Employing bare-metal loading of applications is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. Bare-metal loading is a technique that allows applications to run directly on hardware without an operating system or a hypervisor. Bare-metal loading can help improve the performance and efficiency of applications by eliminating the overhead and interference of other software layers, but it may also increase the difficulty and cost of deployment and maintenance.

Implementing RAID on the backup servers is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. RAID (redundant array of independent disks) is a technique that combines multiple disks into a logical unit that provides improved performance, reliability, or both. RAID can help improve the availability and security of backup data by protecting it from disk failures or corruption, but it may also introduce additional complexity and overhead to the backup process.

Utilizing redundant power for all developer workstations is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. Redundant power is a technique that provides multiple sources of power for an IT system in case one fails. Redundant power can help improve the availability and reliability of developer workstations by preventing them from losing power due to outages or surges, but it may also increase the cost and energy consumption of the system.

Ensuring technological diversity on critical servers is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. Technological diversity is a technique that uses different types of hardware, software, or platforms in an IT environment. Technological diversity can help improve resilience by reducing single points of failure and increasing compatibility, but it may also introduce additional complexity and inconsistency to the environment. References: What Is CDN? How Does CDN Work? | Imperva, What Is Server Clustering? | IBM, What Is Server Clustering? | IBM, Server Clustering: What It Is & How It Works | Liquid Web, Storage I/O Performance - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics, [How to Improve Storage I/O Performance | StarWind Blog], [What Is Firewall Security? | Cisco], [What is Bare Metal? | IBM], [What is RAID? | Dell Technologies US], [What Is Redundant Power Supply? | Dell Technologies US], [Technological Diversity - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics]

A spam campaign is a mass distribution of unsolicited or fraudulent emails that may contain malicious links, attachments, or requests. Spam campaigns are often used by attackers to deliver ransomware, which is a type of malware that encrypts the victim’s data and demands a ransom for its decryption.

Simulating a spam campaign would allow the Chief Security Officer (CSO) to evaluate whether the training has been successful in reducing the number of successful ransomware attacks that have hit the company, because it would:

Test the employees’ ability to recognize and avoid clicking on fake or malicious emails, which is one of the main vectors for ransomware infection.

Measure the effectiveness of the training by comparing the click-through rate and the infection rate before and after the training.

Provide feedback and reinforcement to the employees by informing them of their performance and reminding them of the best practices for email security.

The primary goal of an after-action review (AAR) is to evaluate the response to an incident critically and identify what was done well and what could be improved. An AAR is a structured review or de-brief process for analyzing what happened, why it happened, and how it can be done better by the participants and those responsible for the project or event.

Certificate Authority Authorization (CAA) is not listed directly in the provided options, but it is a relevant mechanism in the context of managing certificates and preventing issues similar to the one described. However, based on the available choices, the Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) comes closest to providing a viable solution. OCSP allows for real-time validation of a certificate's revocation status, which could mitigate the issue of users being locked out due to key pinning policies. It is a more modern and efficient alternative to Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs), offering faster and more reliable certificate status checks. By implementing OCSP, the technician could ensure that clients receive timely updates on the revocation status of certificates, potentially avoiding the downtime caused by the key-pinning policy awaiting expiration​​.

Step by Step Explanation:

A: Randomizing the keypad reduces the risk of shoulder-surfing attacks by eliminating predictable patterns.

C: Randomization increases the cognitive load on users, making it harder to input numbers quickly.

D: Additional computational power is minimal and not typically a trade-off.

E and F: Remembering access numbers or weak passwords are unrelated to keypad randomization.

Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems provide real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware. SIEMs are beneficial in environments where there is a mix of various solutions, as they can collect and aggregate logs from multiple sources, providing the internal security team with a centralized view and visibility into all platforms. This would best meet the objective of ensuring visibility into all platforms, regardless of the differing solutions across the company's locations.

To prioritize server replacements based on the likelihood of failure, the MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) metric is most appropriate. MTBF provides a measure of the average time a server or system is expected to operate before experiencing failure. This allows the management team to assess which servers are more likely to fail soon, irrespective of the application criticality, and thus should be replaced first. CASP+ highlights the use of MTBF in hardware lifecycle management and risk assessments.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 1.0 – Risk Management (MTBF in Hardware Lifecycle)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Server Risk Assessments Using MTBF and Reliability Metrics

A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is the document used to specify due dates for the remediation of high- and critical-priority findings. SLAs outline the responsibilities of the service provider, including time frames for addressing issues or vulnerabilities, based on their severity. By setting clear timelines for remediation, SLAs ensure that critical security vulnerabilities are addressed in a timely manner. CASP+ emphasizes the importance of SLAs in maintaining accountability for security operations and ensuring compliance with organizational security policies.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 1.0 – Risk Management (SLAs and Security Management)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: SLAs for Security Vulnerability Management

Passwordless authentication is an authentication method that does not require the user to enter a password. Instead, it relies on alternative forms of verification, such as biometric readers (fingerprint or facial recognition), proximity badge entry systems, and hardware security tokens. These technologies provide a means to authenticate users with higher assurance levels and would benefit the most from the use of the mentioned devices and methods.

Galois/Counter Mode (GCM) is an AES mode of operation that provides both confidentiality and data integrity. It is well-suited for processing streams of data, making it ideal for streaming video services. GCM is known for its strong cryptographic security and good performance, which aligns with the legacy cipher's characteristics and the streaming service's requirements.

To protect DNS from on-path attacks and ensure that zone transfers are mutually authenticated and secure, the security architect should configure DNSSEC and Public keys. DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions) provides protection against DNS spoofing by digitally signing DNS data to ensure its integrity. Public keys are crucial for mutual authentication during zone transfers, ensuring that only authorized parties can exchange DNS zone data. Together, these options help meet both the requirements of securing DNS queries and authenticating zone transfers with cryptographic integrity.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 3.0 – Enterprise Security Architecture (DNS Security)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: DNSSEC Implementation and Use of Public Keys

The network administrator is noticing a web attack that attempts to access the /etc/shadow file on a Linux web server. The /etc/shadow file contains the encrypted passwords of all users on the system and is a common target for attackers. The attack uses a technique called directory traversal, which exploits a vulnerability in the web application that allows an attacker to access files or directories outside of the intended scope by manipulating the file path.

Validating the server input and appending the input to the base directory path would be the best action for the network administrator to take to defend against this type of web attack, because it would:

Check the user input for any errors, malicious data, or unexpected values before processing it by the web application.

Prevent directory traversal by ensuring that the user input is always relative to the base directory path of the web application, and not absolute to the root directory of the web server.

Deny access to any files or directories that are not part of the web application’s scope or functionality.

Calculating the Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) and conducting a cost-benefit analysis is a critical part of risk management. The ALE will help the company understand the potential losses associated with the server failure per year, which can then be weighed against the cost of mitigating the risk (e.g., replacing the server or implementing redundancies). This analysis will inform the decision on the best course of action to manage the risk associated with the aging server.

Visitor logs would be the best additional method for identifying individuals who enter the building in the event of a camera system failure. Visitor logs track who enters and exits a secured facility, providing a record that can be cross-referenced with security events, like the discovery of a suspicious flash drive. In this case, reviewing the visitor logs could help identify the vendor representative who dropped the flash drive. CASP+ highlights the importance of physical security measures, such as logging and auditing access to facilities, to complement digital security controls.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Physical Security and Access Control Logs)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Physical Security and Incident Response Procedures

The log messages in the image display detailed error messages, indicating improper error handling, which can expose sensitive information to potential attackers. Proper error handling ensures that error messages do not reveal underlying application details (such as file paths or configuration information) that could be exploited. This aligns with the best practices in secure coding and is a core concept in CASP+. Rather than exposing the inner workings of the application, the system should return generic error messages to users while logging detailed information securely for internal troubleshooting.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Secure Coding, Error Handling)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Web Application Security and Proper Error Handling Techniques

To meet the requirements for authentication using trusted third parties and session maintenance, SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) and JWT (JSON Web Token) are the best options. SAML is widely used for single sign-on (SSO) and federated authentication, allowing users to authenticate with an external identity provider (trusted third party). JWT is commonly used for maintaining authenticated sessions across web applications and is well-suited for long-term session management, like the six-month duration mentioned. Together, these solutions meet the requirements for standards-based authentication and long-lasting sessions. CASP+ discusses the role of SAML in federated identity management and JWT in token-based authentication.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Federated Identity Management, JWT, SAML)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Web Application Authentication with SAML and JWT

The most significant risk to the development of a machine-learning-based threat detection tool is the Big Data processing required for maturity. Machine learning models often require large datasets to train effectively, and processing and analyzing this data can be time-consuming and resource-intensive. This can delay the development timeline, especially in a rapid CI/CD pipeline environment where timely delivery is crucial. CASP+ highlights the challenges associated with machine learning and Big Data in security tool development, particularly the resource demands and the need for extensive data to ensure accuracy and maturity.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Big Data and Machine Learning Challenges)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Implementing and Managing Machine Learning in Security Environments

A Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) solution meets all the listed requirements: reducing patch management, using standard configurations, allowing for custom resource configurations, and providing access from multiple device types. VDI allows centralized management of desktop environments, where patches and updates can be applied once and distributed across all virtual desktops. It also supports flexible resource configurations and secure remote access from various devices. CASP+ highlights VDI as a solution for centralized, secure desktop management that meets modern enterprise needs for mobility and security.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 3.0 – Enterprise Security Architecture (VDI for Secure Remote Desktop Management)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Virtual Desktop Infrastructure for Centralized Management and Security

A governance program that rates suppliers based on their access to data, the type of data, and how they access the data is the best way to manage the risk of handling and security of customer data by third parties. This allows the company to assign key controls that are reviewed and managed based on the supplier’s rating and report findings to the relevant units and risk teams. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal /issues/2018/volume-1/third-party-risk-management