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AICP American Institute of Certified Planners Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following activities is a primary function of a public sector planner?

Options:

A.

Preparation of CIP budgets

B.

Preparation of park master plans

C.

Subdivision and zoning code administration

D.

Policy research and analysis

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Questions 5

The following table provides data on commuting patterns:

    Median Distance (miles): Owners: United States 8.2, Cities 6.7, Suburbs 10.7, Central MSAs 6.0; Renters: United States 5.1, Cities 4.7, Suburbs 7.5, Central MSAs 4.0

    Median Travel Time (minutes): Owners: United States 21, Cities 21, Suburbs 23, Central MSAs 16; Renters: United States 19, Cities 21, Suburbs 21, Central MSAs 15Which of the following statements is supported by the information given in the table above?

Options:

A.

Owners generally have a wider choice of residential locations than do renters.

B.

Commuters tend to experience slower travel speeds in cities than in suburbs or nonmetropolitan areas.

C.

Renters are more dependent on public transportation than owners are.

D.

Renters tend to live closer to their places of work than do owners.

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Questions 6

One of your city's most diverse zip codes is located in the subarea targeted for the next neighborhood plan. To increase early involvement among the diverse population of this community, the planner should:

Options:

A.

Hold a charrette at the local middle school in the planning process.

B.

Invite a diverse set of community leaders to a public hearing at city hall.

C.

Send a multi-lingual brochure to registered voters in the community about the planning process.

D.

Attend meetings of local organizations in advance of the planning process starting.

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Questions 7

A home rule state allows local governments to exercise all planning and zoning authority that is:

Options:

A.

Approved by a local initiative.

B.

Enabled by state legislation.

C.

Not restricted by local referendum.

D.

Not reserved to the state.

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Questions 8

Which best describes the policy analysis process for planners?

Options:

A.

Use of scientifically based surveys and polling to determine the broader community's level of support for various policy alternatives

B.

Use of systematic methods to evaluate policy, with the input of teams and stakeholders, and with a focus on actionable outcomes

C.

Strict application of repeatable numerical measurement techniques to determine the extent to which given policies have been or may be successfully implemented

D.

Systematic review and editing of existing or proposed policy language to ensure that the format and language is consistent throughout the document

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Questions 9

The following building heights (in feet) are given: 50, 60, 55, 40, 45, 55, 55, 45, 50, 40, 45, 45, 50, 50, 55, 55, 55, 60. What is the median value of the building heights, in feet, above?

Options:

A.

50.0 ft.

B.

50.5 ft.

C.

55.0 ft.

D.

56.9 ft.

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Questions 10

Which of the following places is most representative of neo-traditional design principles?

Options:

A.

Reston, VA

B.

Seaside, FL

C.

Columbia, MD

D.

Aurora, IL

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Questions 11

Fiscal impact analysis includes a projection of:

Options:

A.

Net cash flow to the public sector resulting from residential and nonresidential development.

B.

Job creation and profitability of a private sector development proposal.

C.

Tax revenues at the regional, state, and national level.

D.

Developer investment for onsite improvements.

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Questions 12

Any time a federal agency develops a new rule, policy, or directive, or takes any action that might impact tribal nations, what are the obligations and requirements?

Options:

A.

The agency must engage in official consultations with affected tribal nations early and often during the decision-making process.

B.

The federal government must defer to the State in which the affected tribal nation(s) are geographically located to engage in the government-to-government relationship.

C.

The Bureau of Indian Affairs is the sole entity permitted to officially consult with affected tribal nations on policy, regulatory, or planning matters.

D.

The Supreme Court decision(s) and executive orders do not require federal agencies to engage with affected tribal nations.

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Questions 13

Which of the following is not stated in the AICP Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct?

Options:

A.

A planner primarily serves the public interest

B.

A planner shall preserve the secrets and confidences of a client or employer

C.

A planner shall place the client’s individual or group values as paramount

D.

A planner shall assist in maintaining the integrity and competency of the profession

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Questions 14

A community adopts a goal of "Health in all Policies" in its Comprehensive Plan. Which tool implements that goal?

Options:

A.

Reducing residential densities

B.

Creating buffer and separation requirements for transit stops

C.

Planning for parks within a ten-minute walk of all neighborhoods

D.

Restricting environmental review to major point sources of pollution

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Questions 15

The most important goal of soil erosion and sedimentation regulations is the protection of:

Options:

A.

Residential subdivisions.

B.

Farms and ranches.

C.

New construction projects.

D.

Drainage ways and watercourses.

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Questions 16

Which of the following governmental programs has produced comparatively few unintended negative impacts to existing neighborhoods?

Options:

A.

Federal flood insurance programs

B.

Community development block grants

C.

Interstate highways

D.

Urban renewal

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Questions 17

What is a best practice to achieve plan implementation?

Options:

A.

Monitor planning indicators and metrics

B.

Carry out citywide planning process

C.

Involve all sectors in planning efforts

D.

Seek broad participation in planning process

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Questions 18

A planner is responsible for a comprehensive plan update with limited time and staff resources. The planner, as the team leader, must motivate the team members to do their task(s) and responsibilities. The best strategy to do this is to:

Options:

A.

Require staff to prepare daily progress reports.

B.

Craft a memorandum assigning detailed responsibilities.

C.

Keep an open-door policy for questions, track progress, and support if needed.

D.

Rely on outside resources such as guidelines, templates, and sample products.

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Questions 19

The following chart compares two options for appointing a planning director: Option Y (the planning director is appointed by the governor, overseeing the Office of State Planning and Various Other Departments); Option Z (the director is selected through the state’s civil service process, with the governor overseeing the Department of State Planning and Various Other Departments separately). Given the information in the chart, which of the following can be concluded?

Options:

A.

In Option Y, the governor would appoint a director who has supported them politically.

B.

The more competent professional planner would be named in Option Z rather than in Option Y.

C.

In Option Y, the director could be dismissed for any reason.

D.

In Option Y, the director would be a professional planner.

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Questions 20

Which of the following recruitment strategies are likely to attract the next generation of planners?

Options:

A.

Promote the political climate of the planning profession

B.

Implement place-based outreach and establish mentorships

C.

Use of social media and radio announcements to promote the profession

D.

Defer engaging students until they have completed a course in planning theory

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Questions 21

A planner in a local government office becomes aware that the planning director, a member of AICP, has a longstanding personal and business relationship with a lawyer who frequently appears before the planning commission on behalf of private developers. Which of the following actions is suggested by the AICP Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct?

Options:

A.

Do nothing unless there is direct evidence that the director is favoring clients of this lawyer

B.

Subtly make the director aware that the planner knows of the relationship

C.

Report the situation to the mayor or chair of the planning commission

D.

Point out to the director the need to disclose this relationship the next time the lawyer appears before the commission

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Questions 22

The first step in evaluating any development application submitted to a municipal planning agency is to ensure:

Options:

A.

The proposed use is allowed by right.

B.

The application is complete.

C.

The neighborhood meeting has taken place.

D.

The filing deadline is met.

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Questions 23

A planner is requested to prepare a presentation to develop recommendations that help people experiencing homelessness. Which tactic should be included in the presentation?

Options:

A.

Eliminate housing vouchers

B.

Convert motels to single-occupancy housing

C.

Enforce strict bans on overnight and recreational vehicle parking

D.

Implement rigorous procedures to issue permits to construct temporary housing

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Questions 24

Effective public hearings should have which of the following characteristics?

Options:

A.

Speakers should be allowed unlimited time to present their positions.

B.

Speakers should be allowed to address all issues of concern to them.

C.

Timeframes should be established for individual speakers to address the subject of the hearing.

D.

A timeframe should be established for an open discussion by the audience as a whole.

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Questions 25

Which of the following would not be included as part of a report on a typical research effort?

Options:

A.

Method of evaluation

B.

Purpose of the project

C.

Policy statement

D.

Data collected

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Questions 26

Which of the following is not a characteristic of New Urbanism?

Options:

A.

Design principles that are reinforced through the architectural mix

B.

Reduced environmental impacts of a development

C.

Connected street grid linking residential and commercial uses that are located in separate areas of a development

D.

Smaller residential lots, more open space, and an emphasis on transit-oriented neighborhoods

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Questions 27

Among other things, subdivision regulations affect the:

Options:

A.

Use of building materials and manner of building construction.

B.

Design of streets and the location of utilities.

C.

Type of activities that may occur on a particular site.

D.

Height and bulk of structures.

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Questions 28

To withstand legal scrutiny, which of the following is required for a public design review process?

Options:

A.

The review can only cover matters under the purview of a building permit.

B.

Members of a review board must be qualified design professionals.

C.

Guidelines must be published setting down the criteria which projects must meet.

D.

Matters which involve difference in taste, such as color and architectural style, cannot be included.

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Questions 29

Euclidean zoning districts are based on which element of the Comprehensive Plan?

Options:

A.

Capital Improvements Plan

B.

Major Street Plan

C.

Community Facilities Plan

D.

Land Use Plan

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Questions 30

A former planning manager has been asked by the chair of a neighborhood group to lead a discussion on authentic and genuine community engagement. The manager accepts the invitation, but later learns the neighborhood has formally submitted a protest on inadequate public participation for a new bicycle plan the municipality is drafting. How should the manager proceed?

Options:

A.

Contact the chair to discuss how to expand community engagement without focusing on the draft bicycle plan

B.

Contact planning staff currently working on the draft bicycle plan and ask that they go to the neighborhood meeting in lieu of the manager

C.

Ask the chair of the neighborhood to cancel its meeting to discuss the draft plan because formal protest information was not previously provided

D.

Review a copy of the draft bicycle plan and craft a white paper for the neighborhood on whether the draft has adequately engaged the public

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Questions 31

If the original data were reexamined using cost-benefit ratios, which of the following statements would be correct?

Options:

A.

All of the alternatives would be justified.

B.

The preferred alternative would be different.

C.

The preferred alternative would remain the same.

D.

A preferred alternative could not be identified.

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Questions 32

Crowdsourcing is an increasingly popular tool that can help planners:

Options:

A.

Forecast anomalies in demographic population pyramids.

B.

Identify locations where crowds may gather in central business districts.

C.

Use social media to enlist a wide variety of input on a planning project.

D.

Identify geographic concentrations of transit user demand.

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Questions 33

Which of the following may be a basis for goals in a comprehensive plan?

Options:

A.

Values of the stakeholders of the jurisdiction

B.

Prioritizing the opinions of special interest groups

C.

Involvement of out-of-state corporations

D.

Consensus among the various governmental agencies

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Questions 34

After issuance of a complaint under the AICP Code of Ethics, a settlement can be negotiated solely between the:

Options:

A.

Charging Party and the Respondent.

B.

Ethics Officer and the Respondent.

C.

Ethics Officer and the Charging Party.

D.

Charging Party and the Ethics Committee.

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Questions 35

A developer applies to a municipality for a change of zoning designation to build a large office complex. The zoning board schedules a public hearing to hear the case. When the board listens to this application, it should be concerned primarily with:

Options:

A.

Establishing a record to use in the event of litigation.

B.

Evaluating the application in relation to planning goals.

C.

Allowing the public to determine community directions.

D.

Identifying the benefits that the proposal would bring to the community.

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Questions 36

A city that is characterized by strong community organizations, a diverse population, and income disparities should undertake which of the following planning efforts?

Options:

A.

Regional planning

B.

Neighborhood planning

C.

Commercial redevelopment planning

D.

Transit planning

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Questions 37

Brownfield reuse assessments should consider:

I. Market receptiveness to remediated sites

II. Architectural standards

III. Surrounding uses

IV. Opportunities for funding and partnerships

Options:

A.

I only

B.

I and II

C.

I, II, and III

D.

I, III, and IV

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Questions 38

The planning department worked for a year to prepare a plan for economic development. On completion of the plan, it was submitted to the city council for approval. The council disapproved of the plan. Which of the following courses of action, not undertaken or recommended originally, should be recommended to the mayor at this time?

I. The mayor should meet with key members of the city council to explain the plan.

II. The plan should be accepted by the mayor’s office and implemented.

III. A committee of business and community leaders should be created to review the plan.

IV. The plan should be returned to the planning department for review and modification.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

IV only

C.

I and III only

D.

II and III only

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Questions 39

The United States Bureau of the Census decennial population reports give the most socioeconomic data (more variables and more cross-tabulations) for which of the following geographic areas?

Options:

A.

Census tracts

B.

Census blocks

C.

Zip codes

D.

Block groups

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Questions 40

Which of the following is true about creating accessible content for persons with visual impairments?

Options:

A.

Loud background audio is acceptable.

B.

Images of text are encouraged instead of actual text.

C.

Color may be used as the only way of conveying information or identifying content.

D.

Default foreground and background color combinations should provide sufficient contrast.

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Questions 41

A planner is asked to assist a social service agency in analyzing a survey it conducted. The survey results will be used to identify needs and prioritize funding. In preparing the analysis, the planner discovers that the reliability of some of the data is questionable. In this situation, the planner should first:

Options:

A.

Refuse to continue with the project until the data are corrected

B.

Rely on other sources of data and continue with the project

C.

Evaluate the seriousness of the problem and report it to the project leader

D.

Write the findings of the survey as reported, noting the reliability problem

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Questions 42

Which of the following is the least likely explanation for the decline in population in a central city?

Options:

A.

A decline in household size

B.

Lack of land zoned for medium-density housing

C.

A net loss of jobs

D.

Out-migration of young people

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Questions 43

In “The Death and Life of Great American Cities,” Jane Jacobs put forth the theory that community vitality is the result of:

Options:

A.

Zoning regulations.

B.

Purchasing power.

C.

Comprehensive plans.

D.

Adequate density.

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Questions 44

The most important contribution to city design in the United States made by Charles L’Enfant’s grand plan for the federal capital city was:

Options:

A.

A grid street pattern.

B.

A central open space.

C.

A pattern of radial streets connecting major locations.

D.

An orientation toward the waterfront.

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Questions 45

The primary purpose for undertaking a community visioning process is to:

Options:

A.

Aid in the development of goals for community planning.

B.

Identify possible solutions to a wide range of community issues.

C.

Evaluate the effectiveness of the existing plan.

D.

Develop goals for the capital improvement program.

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Questions 46

Which public participation technique connects visioning with data analysis?

Options:

A.

Surveys

B.

Nominal group

C.

Sticky notes

D.

Scenario testing

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Questions 47

The use of two or more maps that are digitally or manually superimposed and registered to a common coordinate system to show the relationships between features that occupy the same geographic space is called:

Options:

A.

A theme.

B.

A buffer.

C.

An overlay.

D.

A merge.

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Questions 48

The initial direct impact of the City Beautiful movement on the form of North American cities was that it:

Options:

A.

Encouraged residential subdivision design that was beautiful as well as functional.

B.

Introduced modern design concepts appropriate to cities built around automobile movement.

C.

Encouraged the construction of skyscrapers to create an exciting skyline.

D.

Promoted the construction of civic centers and other symbols of collective action.

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Questions 49

Which of these metropolitan regions have appointed or elected regional governance systems that bridge city-suburb boundaries and manage transit, parks and recreation, affordable housing, wastewater, or urban growth boundaries?

I. Minneapolis/St. Paul, Minnesota

II. Orlando, Florida

III. Portland, Oregon

IV. Phoenix, Arizona

Options:

A.

I and II

B.

I and III

C.

II and IV

D.

III and IV

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Questions 50

Using tax increment financing (TIF), local governments can finance public infrastructure for economic development projects with new tax revenue that is generated by development within the designated area. Incremental, new tax revenue from a TIF district can directly:

Options:

A.

Fund expanded public services, e.g., schools and public safety, generated by the TIF development project.

B.

Provide or repay financing mechanisms, such as bonds, used to fund the TIF developmentproject.

C.

Pay for maintenance and operations of new public infrastructure located within the TIF district.

D.

Finance future, yet unidentified development projects located within the TIF district.

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Questions 51

Excessively detailed urban public space can reduce the viability of retail because:

Options:

A.

Banners, furnishings, and signage distract consumers from window displays.

B.

Consumers dislike or feel unsafe walking on city streets.

C.

Consumers prefer the shopping mall experience, regardless of design.

D.

Sign ordinances limit the amount of information available to the consumer.

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Exam Code: AICP
Exam Name: American Institute of Certified Planners Exam
Last Update: Jun 30, 2025
Questions: 170

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