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712-50 EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What are the three stages of an identity and access management system?

Options:

A.

Authentication, Authorize, Validation

B.

Provision, Administration, Enforcement

C.

Administration, Validation, Protect

D.

Provision, Administration, Authentication

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Questions 5

You are just hired as the new CISO and are being briefed on all the Information Security projects that your section has on going. You discover that most projects are behind schedule and over budget.

Using the best business practices for project management you determine that the project correctly aligns with the company goals and the scope of the project is correct. What is the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Review time schedules

B.

Verify budget

C.

Verify resources

D.

Verify constraints

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Questions 6

Which regulation or policy governs protection of personally identifiable user data gathered during a cyber investigation?

Options:

A.

ITIL

B.

Privacy Act

C.

Sarbanes Oxley

D.

PCI-DSS

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Questions 7

When information security falls under the Chief Information Officer (CIO), what is their MOST essential role?

Options:

A.

Oversees the organization’s day-to-day operations, creating the policies and strategies that govern operations

B.

Enlisting support from key executives the information security program budget and policies

C.

Charged with developing and implementing policies designed to protect employees and customers’ data from unauthorized access

D.

Responsible for the success or failure of the IT organization and setting strategic direction

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Questions 8

Which of the following are the triple constraints of project management?

Options:

A.

Time, quality, and scope

B.

Cost, quality, and time

C.

Scope, time, and cost

D.

Quality, scope, and cost

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Questions 9

A company wants to fill a Chief Information Security Officer position. Which of the following qualifications and experience would be MOST desirable in a candidate?

Options:

A.

Multiple certifications, strong technical capabilities and lengthy resume

B.

Industry certifications, technical knowledge and program management skills

C.

College degree, audit capabilities and complex project management

D.

Multiple references, strong background check and industry certifications

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Questions 10

Which of the following is the MOST effective method to counter phishing attacks?

Options:

A.

User awareness and training

B.

Host based Intrusion Detection System (IPS)

C.

Acceptable use guide signed by all system users

D.

Antispam solution

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Questions 11

You have been promoted to the CISO of a retail store. Which of the following compliance standards is the MOST important to the organization?

Options:

A.

Payment Card Industry (PCI) Data Security Standard (DSS)

B.

ISO 27002

C.

NIST Cybersecurity Framework

D.

The Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program (FedRAMP)

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Questions 12

The alerting, monitoring, and lifecycle management of security-related events are typically managed by the:

Options:

A.

Security controls group

B.

Governance, risk, and compliance tools

C.

Security Threat and vulnerability management process

D.

Risk assessment process

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Questions 13

An auditor is reviewing the security classifications for a group of assets and finds that many of the assets are not correctly classified.

What should the auditor’s NEXT step be?

Options:

A.

Immediately notify the board of directors of the organization as to the finding

B.

Correct the classifications immediately based on the auditor’s knowledge of the proper classification

C.

Document the missing classifications

D.

Identify the owner of the asset and induce the owner to apply a proper classification

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Questions 14

A key cybersecurity feature of a Personal Identification Verification (PIV) Card is:

Options:

A.

Inability to export the private certificate/key

B.

It can double as physical identification at the DMV

C.

It has the user’s photograph to help ID them

D.

It can be used as a secure flash drive

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Questions 15

From the CISO’s perspective in looking at financial statements, the statement of retained earnings of an organization:

Options:

A.

Has a direct correlation with the CISO’s budget

B.

Represents, in part, the savings generated by the proper acquisition and implementation of security controls

C.

Represents the sum of all capital expenditures

D.

Represents the percentage of earnings that could in part be used to finance future security controls

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Questions 16

ABC Limited has recently suffered a security breach with customers’ social security number available on the dark web for sale. The CISO, during the time of the incident, has been fired, and you have been hired as the replacement. The analysis of the breach found that the absence of an insider threat program, lack of least privilege policy, and weak access control was to blame. You would like to implement key performance indicators to mitigate the risk.

Which metric would meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Number of times third parties access critical information systems

B.

Number of systems with known vulnerabilities

C.

Number of users with elevated privileges

D.

Number of websites with weak or misconfigured certificates

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Questions 17

Who should be involved in the development of an internal campaign to address email phishing?

Options:

A.

Business unit leaders, CIO, CEO

B.

Business Unite Leaders, CISO, CIO and CEO

C.

All employees

D.

CFO, CEO, CIO

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Questions 18

The main purpose of the SOC is:

Options:

A.

An organization which provides Tier 1 support for technology issues and provides escalation when needed

B.

A distributed organization which provides intelligence to governments and private sectors on cyber-criminal activities

C.

The coordination of personnel, processes and technology to identify information security events and provide timely response and remediation

D.

A device which consolidates event logs and provides real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware

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Questions 19

A CISO decides to analyze the IT infrastructure to ensure security solutions adhere to organizational implementation and management requirements. Which of the following principles does this BEST demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Proper budget management

B.

Leveraging existing implementations

C.

Alignment with the business

D.

Effective use of existing technologies

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Questions 20

A CISO must conduct risk assessments using a method where the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) receives impact data in financial terms to use as input to select the proper level of coverage in a new cybersecurity insurance policy.

What is the MOST effective method of risk analysis to provide the CFO with the information required?

Options:

A.

Conduct a quantitative risk assessment

B.

Conduct a hybrid risk assessment

C.

Conduct a subjective risk assessment

D.

Conduct a qualitative risk assessment

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Questions 21

To make sure that the actions of all employees, applications, and systems follow the organization’s rules and regulations can BEST be described as which of the following?

Options:

A.

Compliance management

B.

Asset management

C.

Risk management

D.

Security management

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Questions 22

What does RACI stand for?

Options:

A.

Reasonable, Actionable, Controlled, and Implemented

B.

Responsible, Actors, Consult, and Instigate

C.

Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed

D.

Review, Act, Communicate, and Inform

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Questions 23

You have been promoted to the CISO of a big-box retail store chain reporting to the Chief Information Officer (CIO). The CIO’s first mandate to you is to develop a cybersecurity compliance framework that will meet all the store’s compliance requirements.

Which of the following compliance standard is the MOST important to the organization?

Options:

A.

The Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program (FedRAMP)

B.

ISO 27002

C.

NIST Cybersecurity Framework

D.

Payment Card Industry (PCI) Data Security Standard (DSS)

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Questions 24

The primary responsibility for assigning entitlements to a network share lies with which role?

Options:

A.

CISO

B.

Data owner

C.

Chief Information Officer (CIO)

D.

Security system administrator

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Questions 25

What is the primary difference between regulations and standards?

Options:

A.

Standards will include regulations

B.

Standards that aren’t followed are punishable by fines

C.

Regulations are made enforceable by the power provided by laws

D.

Regulations must be reviewed and approved by the business

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Questions 26

What is the MOST critical output of the incident response process?

Options:

A.

A complete document of all involved team members and the support they provided

B.

Recovery of all data from affected systems

C.

Lessons learned from the incident, so they can be incorporated into the incident response processes

D.

Clearly defined documents detailing standard evidence collection and preservation processes

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Questions 27

Who is responsible for verifying that audit directives are implemented?

Options:

A.

IT Management

B.

Internal Audit

C.

IT Security

D.

BOD Audit Committee

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Questions 28

Optical biometric recognition such as retina scanning provides access to facilities through reading the unique characteristics of a person’s eye.

However, authorization failures can occur with individuals who have?

Options:

A.

Glaucoma or cataracts

B.

Two different colored eyes (heterochromia iridium)

C.

Contact lens

D.

Malaria

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Questions 29

A university recently hired a CISO. One of the first tasks is to develop a continuity of operations plan (COOP).

In developing the business impact assessment (BIA), which of the following MOST closely relate to the data backup and restoral?

Options:

A.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

B.

Mean Time to Delivery (MTD)

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)

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Questions 30

What is a key policy that should be part of the information security plan?

Options:

A.

Account management policy

B.

Training policy

C.

Acceptable Use policy

D.

Remote Access policy

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Questions 31

When reviewing a Solution as a Service (SaaS) provider’s security health and posture, which key document should you review?

Options:

A.

SaaS provider’s website certifications and representations (certs and reps)

B.

SOC-2 Report

C.

Metasploit Audit Report

D.

Statement from SaaS provider attesting their ability to secure your data

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Questions 32

What is the THIRD state of the Tuckman Stages of Group Development?

Options:

A.

Performing

B.

Norming

C.

Storming

D.

Forming

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Questions 33

With a focus on the review and approval aspects of board responsibilities, the Data Governance Council recommends that the boards provide strategic oversight regarding information and information security, include these four things:

Options:

A.

Metrics tracking security milestones, understanding criticality of information and information security, visibility into the types of information and how it is used, endorsement by the board of directors

B.

Annual security training for all employees, continual budget reviews, endorsement of the development and implementation of a security program, metrics to track the program

C.

Understanding criticality of information and information security, review investment in information security, endorse development and implementation of a security program, and require regular reports on adequacy and effectiveness

D.

Endorsement by the board of directors for security program, metrics of security program milestones, annual budget review, report on integration and acceptance of program

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Questions 34

When performing a forensic investigation, what are the two MOST common data sources for obtaining evidence from a computer and mobile devices?

Options:

A.

RAM and unallocated space

B.

Unallocated space and RAM

C.

Slack space and browser cache

D.

Persistent and volatile data

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Questions 35

Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on the implementation of an information security governance model?

Options:

A.

Organizational budget

B.

Distance between physical locations

C.

Number of employees

D.

Complexity of organizational structure

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Questions 36

When managing an Information Security Program, which of the following is of MOST importance in order to influence the culture of an organization?

Options:

A.

An independent Governance, Risk and Compliance organization

B.

Alignment of security goals with business goals

C.

Compliance with local privacy regulations

D.

Support from Legal and HR teams

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Questions 37

Which of the following represents the HIGHEST negative impact resulting from an ineffective security governance program?

Options:

A.

Reduction of budget

B.

Decreased security awareness

C.

Improper use of information resources

D.

Fines for regulatory non-compliance

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Questions 38

The success of the Chief Information Security Officer is MOST dependent upon:

Options:

A.

favorable audit findings

B.

following the recommendations of consultants and contractors

C.

development of relationships with organization executives

D.

raising awareness of security issues with end users

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Questions 39

A global retail company is creating a new compliance management process. Which of the following regulations is of MOST importance to be tracked and managed by this process?

Options:

A.

Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)

B.

International Organization for Standardization (ISO) standards

C.

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI-DSS)

D.

National Institute for Standards and Technology (NIST) standard

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Questions 40

Which of the following is MOST likely to be discretionary?

Options:

A.

Policies

B.

Procedures

C.

Guidelines

D.

Standards

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Questions 41

What should an organization do to ensure that they have a sound Business Continuity (BC) Plan?

Options:

A.

Test every three years to ensure that things work as planned

B.

Conduct periodic tabletop exercises to refine the BC plan

C.

Outsource the creation and execution of the BC plan to a third party vendor

D.

Conduct a Disaster Recovery (DR) exercise every year to test the plan

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Questions 42

What is the SECOND step to creating a risk management methodology according to the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-30 standard?

Options:

A.

Determine appetite

B.

Evaluate risk avoidance criteria

C.

Perform a risk assessment

D.

Mitigate risk

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Questions 43

The executive board has requested that the CISO of an organization define and Key Performance Indicators (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security awareness program provided to call center employees. Which of the following can be used as a KPI?

Options:

A.

Number of callers who report security issues.

B.

Number of callers who report a lack of customer service from the call center

C.

Number of successful social engineering attempts on the call center

D.

Number of callers who abandon the call before speaking with a representative

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Questions 44

During the course of a risk analysis your IT auditor identified threats and potential impacts. Next, your IT auditor should:

Options:

A.

Identify and evaluate the existing controls.

B.

Disclose the threats and impacts to management.

C.

Identify information assets and the underlying systems.

D.

Identify and assess the risk assessment process used by management.

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Questions 45

Which of the following is a weakness of an asset or group of assets that can be exploited by one or more threats?

Options:

A.

Threat

B.

Vulnerability

C.

Attack vector

D.

Exploitation

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Questions 46

Which of the following is MOST important when dealing with an Information Security Steering committee:

Options:

A.

Include a mix of members from different departments and staff levels.

B.

Ensure that security policies and procedures have been vetted and approved.

C.

Review all past audit and compliance reports.

D.

Be briefed about new trends and products at each meeting by a vendor.

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Questions 47

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001?

Options:

A.

Use within an organization to formulate security requirements and objectives

B.

Implementation of business-enabling information security

C.

Use within an organization to ensure compliance with laws and regulations

D.

To enable organizations that adopt it to obtain certifications

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Questions 48

Step-by-step procedures to regain normalcy in the event of a major earthquake is PRIMARILY covered by which of the following plans?

Options:

A.

Incident response plan

B.

Business Continuity plan

C.

Disaster recovery plan

D.

Damage control plan

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Questions 49

The patching and monitoring of systems on a consistent schedule is required by?

Options:

A.

Local privacy laws

B.

Industry best practices

C.

Risk Management frameworks

D.

Audit best practices

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Questions 50

A Chief Information Security Officer received a list of high, medium, and low impact audit findings. Which of the following represents the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

If the findings impact regulatory compliance, try to apply remediation that will address the most findings for the least cost.

B.

If the findings do not impact regulatory compliance, remediate only the high and medium risk findings.

C.

If the findings impact regulatory compliance, remediate the high findings as quickly as possible.

D.

If the findings do not impact regulatory compliance, review current security controls.

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Questions 51

A security manager has created a risk program. Which of the following is a critical part of ensuring the program is successful?

Options:

A.

Providing a risk program governance structure

B.

Ensuring developers include risk control comments in code

C.

Creating risk assessment templates based on specific threats

D.

Allowing for the acceptance of risk for regulatory compliance requirements

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Questions 52

What is the relationship between information protection and regulatory compliance?

Options:

A.

That all information in an organization must be protected equally.

B.

The information required to be protected by regulatory mandate does not have to be identified in the organizations data classification policy.

C.

That the protection of some information such as National ID information is mandated by regulation and other information such as trade secrets are protected based on business need.

D.

There is no relationship between the two.

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Questions 53

Which of the following most commonly falls within the scope of an information security governance steering committee?

Options:

A.

Approving access to critical financial systems

B.

Developing content for security awareness programs

C.

Interviewing candidates for information security specialist positions

D.

Vetting information security policies

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Questions 54

A recent audit has identified a few control exceptions and is recommending the implementation of technology and processes to address the finding. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the organization to reject the implementation of the recommended technology and processes?

Options:

A.

The auditors have not followed proper auditing processes

B.

The CIO of the organization disagrees with the finding

C.

The risk tolerance of the organization permits this risk

D.

The organization has purchased cyber insurance

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Questions 55

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to measure the effectiveness of an Information Security Management System (ISMS)?

Options:

A.

Meet regulatory compliance requirements

B.

Better understand the threats and vulnerabilities affecting the environment

C.

Better understand strengths and weaknesses of the program

D.

Meet legal requirements

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Questions 56

Which of the following best represents a calculation for Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)?

Options:

A.

Single loss expectancy multiplied by the annual rate of occurrence

B.

Total loss expectancy multiplied by the total loss frequency

C.

Value of the asset multiplied by the loss expectancy

D.

Replacement cost multiplied by the single loss expectancy

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Questions 57

Which of the following should be determined while defining risk management strategies?

Options:

A.

Organizational objectives and risk tolerance

B.

Risk assessment criteria

C.

IT architecture complexity

D.

Enterprise disaster recovery plans

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Questions 58

A new CISO just started with a company and on the CISO's desk is the last complete Information Security Management audit report. The audit report is over two years old. After reading it, what should be the CISO's FIRST priority?

Options:

A.

Have internal audit conduct another audit to see what has changed.

B.

Contract with an external audit company to conduct an unbiased audit

C.

Review the recommendations and follow up to see if audit implemented the changes

D.

Meet with audit team to determine a timeline for corrections

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Questions 59

An organization has implemented a change management process for all changes to the IT production environment. This change management process follows best practices and is expected to help stabilize the availability and integrity of the organization’s IT environment. Which of the following can be used to measure the effectiveness of this newly implemented process:

Options:

A.

Number of change orders rejected

B.

Number and length of planned outages

C.

Number of unplanned outages

D.

Number of change orders processed

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Questions 60

Who in the organization determines access to information?

Options:

A.

Legal department

B.

Compliance officer

C.

Data Owner

D.

Information security officer

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Questions 61

What is a difference from the list below between quantitative and qualitative Risk Assessment?

Options:

A.

Quantitative risk assessments result in an exact number (in monetary terms)

B.

Qualitative risk assessments result in a quantitative assessment (high, medium, low, red, yellow, green)

C.

Qualitative risk assessments map to business objectives

D.

Quantitative risk assessments result in a quantitative assessment (high, medium, low, red, yellow, green)

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Questions 62

An organization information security policy serves to

Options:

A.

establish budgetary input in order to meet compliance requirements

B.

establish acceptable systems and user behavior

C.

define security configurations for systems

D.

define relationships with external law enforcement agencies

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Questions 63

SCENARIO: A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently had a third party conduct an audit of the security program. Internal policies and international standards were used as audit baselines. The audit report was presented to the CISO and a variety of high, medium and low rated gaps were identified.

The CISO has validated audit findings, determined if compensating controls exist, and started initial remediation planning. Which of the following is the MOST logical next step?

Options:

A.

Validate the effectiveness of current controls

B.

Create detailed remediation funding and staffing plans

C.

Report the audit findings and remediation status to business stake holders

D.

Review security procedures to determine if they need modified according to findings

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Questions 64

When creating contractual agreements and procurement processes why should security requirements be included?

Options:

A.

To make sure they are added on after the process is completed

B.

To make sure the costs of security is included and understood

C.

To make sure the security process aligns with the vendor’s security process

D.

To make sure the patching process is included with the costs

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Questions 65

A consultant is hired to do physical penetration testing at a large financial company. In the first day of his

assessment, the consultant goes to the company’s building dressed like an electrician and waits in the lobby for

an employee to pass through the main access gate, then the consultant follows the employee behind to get into

the restricted area. Which type of attack did the consultant perform?

Options:

A.

Shoulder surfing

B.

Tailgating

C.

Social engineering

D.

Mantrap

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Questions 66

Which of the following terms is used to describe countermeasures implemented to minimize risks to physical

property, information, and computing systems?

Options:

A.

Security frameworks

B.

Security policies

C.

Security awareness

D.

Security controls

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Questions 67

Scenario: Your program is developed around minimizing risk to information by focusing on people, technology, and operations.

An effective way to evaluate the effectiveness of an information security awareness program for end users, especially senior executives, is to conduct periodic:

Options:

A.

Controlled spear phishing campaigns

B.

Password changes

C.

Baselining of computer systems

D.

Scanning for viruses

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Questions 68

Scenario: An organization has recently appointed a CISO. This is a new role in the organization and it signals the increasing need to address security consistently at the enterprise level. This new CISO, while confident with skills and experience, is constantly on the defensive and is unable to advance the IT security centric agenda.

From an Information Security Leadership perspective, which of the following is a MAJOR concern about the CISO’s approach to security?

Options:

A.

Lack of risk management process

B.

Lack of sponsorship from executive management

C.

IT security centric agenda

D.

Compliance centric agenda

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Questions 69

Which of the following would negatively impact a log analysis of a multinational organization?

Options:

A.

Centralized log management

B.

Encrypted log files in transit

C.

Each node set to local time

D.

Log aggregation agent each node

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Questions 70

Scenario: An organization has recently appointed a CISO. This is a new role in the organization and it signals

the increasing need to address security consistently at the enterprise level. This new CISO, while confident with

skills and experience, is constantly on the defensive and is unable to advance the IT security centric agenda.

From an Information Security Leadership perspective, which of the following is a MAJOR concern about the

CISO’s approach to security?

Options:

A.

Compliance centric agenda

B.

IT security centric agenda

C.

Lack of risk management process

D.

Lack of sponsorship from executive management

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Questions 71

When project costs continually increase throughout implementation due to large or rapid changes in customer

or user requirements, this is commonly known as:

Options:

A.

Cost/benefit adjustments

B.

Scope creep

C.

Prototype issues

D.

Expectations management

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Questions 72

An organization has a number of Local Area Networks (LANs) linked to form a single Wide Area Network

(WAN). Which of the following would BEST ensure network continuity?

Options:

A.

Third-party emergency repair contract

B.

Pre-built servers and routers

C.

Permanent alternative routing

D.

Full off-site backup of every server

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Questions 73

As the Chief Information Security Officer, you want to ensure data shared securely, especially when shared with

third parties outside the organization. What protocol provides the ability to extend the network perimeter with

the use of encapsulation and encryption?

Options:

A.

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

B.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

C.

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

D.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

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Questions 74

File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) is considered a

Options:

A.

Network based security preventative control

B.

Software segmentation control

C.

Security detective control

D.

User segmentation control

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Questions 75

What are the primary reasons for the development of a business case for a security project?

Options:

A.

To estimate risk and negate liability to the company

B.

To understand the attack vectors and attack sources

C.

To communicate risk and forecast resource needs

D.

To forecast usage and cost per software licensing

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Questions 76

Involvement of senior management is MOST important in the development of:

Options:

A.

IT security implementation plans.

B.

Standards and guidelines.

C.

IT security policies.

D.

IT security procedures.

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Questions 77

SCENARIO: Critical servers show signs of erratic behavior within your organization’s intranet. Initial information indicates the systems are under attack from an outside entity. As the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO), you decide to deploy the Incident Response Team (IRT) to determine the details of this incident and take action according to the information available to the team.

In what phase of the response will the team extract information from the affected systems without altering original data?

Options:

A.

Response

B.

Investigation

C.

Recovery

D.

Follow-up

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Questions 78

You are just hired as the new CISO and are being briefed on all the Information Security projects that your section has on going. You discover that most projects are behind schedule and over budget.

Using the best business practices for project management you determine that the project correct aligns with the company goals. What needs to be verified FIRST?

Options:

A.

Scope of the project

B.

Training of the personnel on the project

C.

Timeline of the project milestones

D.

Vendor for the project

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Questions 79

Where does bottom-up financial planning primarily gain information for creating budgets?

Options:

A.

By adding all capital and operational costs from the prior budgetary cycle, and determining potential

financial shortages

B.

By reviewing last year’s program-level costs and adding a percentage of expected additional portfolio costs

C.

By adding the cost of all known individual tasks and projects that are planned for the next budgetary cycle

D.

By adding all planned operational expenses per quarter then summarizing them in a budget request

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Questions 80

Bob waits near a secured door, holding a box. He waits until an employee walks up to the secured door and

uses the special card in order to access the restricted area of the target company. Just as the employee opens

the door, Bob walks up to the employee (still holding the box) and asks the employee to hold the door open so

that he can enter. What is the best way to undermine the social engineering activity of tailgating?

Options:

A.

Post a sign that states, “no tailgating” next to the special card reader adjacent to the secure door

B.

Issue special cards to access secure doors at the company and provide a one-time only brief description of

use of the special card

C.

Educate and enforce physical security policies of the company to all the employees on a regular basis

D.

Setup a mock video camera next to the special card reader adjacent to the secure door

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Questions 81

When analyzing and forecasting a capital expense budget what are not included?

Options:

A.

Network connectivity costs

B.

New datacenter to operate from

C.

Upgrade of mainframe

D.

Purchase of new mobile devices to improve operations

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Questions 82

Scenario: Your company has many encrypted telecommunications links for their world-wide operations. Physically distributing symmetric keys to all locations has proven to be administratively burdensome, but symmetric keys are preferred to other alternatives.

Symmetric encryption in general is preferable to asymmetric encryption when:

Options:

A.

The number of unique communication links is large

B.

The volume of data being transmitted is small

C.

The speed of the encryption / deciphering process is essential

D.

The distance to the end node is farthest away

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Questions 83

As the Business Continuity Coordinator of a financial services organization, you are responsible for ensuring assets are recovered timely in the event of a disaster. Which is the BEST Disaster Recovery performance indicator to validate that you are prepared for a disaster?

Options:

A.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

B.

Disaster Recovery Plan

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Business Continuity Plan

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Questions 84

What is the primary reason for performing vendor management?

Options:

A.

To understand the risk coverage that are being mitigated by the vendor

B.

To establish a vendor selection process

C.

To document the relationship between the company and the vendor

D.

To define the partnership for long-term success

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Questions 85

Which of the following is considered a project versus a managed process?

Options:

A.

monitoring external and internal environment during incident response

B.

ongoing risk assessments of routine operations

C.

continuous vulnerability assessment and vulnerability repair

D.

installation of a new firewall system

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Questions 86

When is an application security development project complete?

Options:

A.

When the application is retired.

B.

When the application turned over to production.

C.

When the application reaches the maintenance phase.

D.

After one year.

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Questions 87

A department within your company has proposed a third party vendor solution to address an urgent, critical business need. As the CISO you have been asked to accelerate screening of their security control claims. Which of the following vendor provided documents is BEST to make your decision:

Options:

A.

Vendor’s client list of reputable organizations currently using their solution

B.

Vendor provided attestation of the detailed security controls from a reputable accounting firm

C.

Vendor provided reference from an existing reputable client detailing their implementation

D.

Vendor provided internal risk assessment and security control documentation

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Questions 88

When considering using a vendor to help support your security devices remotely, what is the BEST choice for allowing access?

Options:

A.

Vendors uses their own laptop and logins with same admin credentials your security team uses

B.

Vendor uses a company supplied laptop and logins using two factor authentication with same admin credentials your security team uses

C.

Vendor uses a company supplied laptop and logins using two factor authentication with their own unique credentials

D.

Vendor uses their own laptop and logins using two factor authentication with their own unique credentials

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Questions 89

A CISO decides to analyze the IT infrastructure to ensure security solutions adhere to the concepts of how hardware and software is implemented and managed within the organization. Which of the following principles does this best demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Alignment with the business

B.

Effective use of existing technologies

C.

Leveraging existing implementations

D.

Proper budget management

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Questions 90

Which of the following information may be found in table top exercises for incident response?

Options:

A.

Security budget augmentation

B.

Process improvements

C.

Real-time to remediate

D.

Security control selection

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Questions 91

When entering into a third party vendor agreement for security services, at what point in the process is it BEST to understand and validate the security posture and compliance level of the vendor?

Options:

A.

At the time the security services are being performed and the vendor needs access to the network

B.

Once the agreement has been signed and the security vendor states that they will need access to the network

C.

Once the vendor is on premise and before they perform security services

D.

Prior to signing the agreement and before any security services are being performed

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Questions 92

When selecting a security solution with reoccurring maintenance costs after the first year, the CISO should: (choose the BEST answer)

Options:

A.

The CISO should cut other essential programs to ensure the new solution’s continued use

B.

Communicate future operating costs to the CIO/CFO and seek commitment from them to ensure the new solution’s continued use

C.

Defer selection until the market improves and cash flow is positive

D.

Implement the solution and ask for the increased operating cost budget when it is time

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Questions 93

What oversight should the information security team have in the change management process for application security?

Options:

A.

Information security should be informed of changes to applications only

B.

Development team should tell the information security team about any application security flaws

C.

Information security should be aware of any significant application security changes and work with developer to test for vulnerabilities before changes are deployed in production

D.

Information security should be aware of all application changes and work with developers before changes are deployed in production

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Questions 94

This occurs when the quantity or quality of project deliverables is expanded from the original project plan.

Options:

A.

Scope creep

B.

Deadline extension

C.

Scope modification

D.

Deliverable expansion

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Questions 95

Which one of the following BEST describes which member of the management team is accountable for the day-to-day operation of the information security program?

Options:

A.

Security administrators

B.

Security mangers

C.

Security technicians

D.

Security analysts

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Questions 96

Which of the following represents the BEST method for obtaining business unit acceptance of security controls within an organization?

Options:

A.

Allow the business units to decide which controls apply to their systems, such as the encryption of sensitive data

B.

Create separate controls for the business units based on the types of business and functions they perform

C.

Ensure business units are involved in the creation of controls and defining conditions under which they must be applied

D.

Provide the business units with control mandates and schedules of audits for compliance validation

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Questions 97

A system was hardened at the Operating System level and placed into the production environment. Months later an audit was performed and it identified insecure configuration different from the original hardened state. Which of the following security issues is the MOST likely reason leading to the audit findings?

Options:

A.

Lack of asset management processes

B.

Lack of change management processes

C.

Lack of hardening standards

D.

Lack of proper access controls

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Questions 98

Which of the following is critical in creating a security program aligned with an organization’s goals?

Options:

A.

Ensure security budgets enable technical acquisition and resource allocation based on internal compliance requirements

B.

Develop a culture in which users, managers and IT professionals all make good decisions about information risk

C.

Provide clear communication of security program support requirements and audit schedules

D.

Create security awareness programs that include clear definition of security program goals and charters

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Questions 99

When gathering security requirements for an automated business process improvement program, which of the following is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Type of data contained in the process/system

B.

Type of connection/protocol used to transfer the data

C.

Type of encryption required for the data once it is at rest

D.

Type of computer the data is processed on

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Questions 100

A recommended method to document the respective roles of groups and individuals for a given process is to:

Options:

A.

Develop a detailed internal organization chart

B.

Develop a telephone call tree for emergency response

C.

Develop an isolinear response matrix with cost benefit analysis projections

D.

Develop a Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed (RACI) chart

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Questions 101

Acme Inc. has engaged a third party vendor to provide 99.999% up-time for their online web presence and had them contractually agree to this service level agreement. What type of risk tolerance is Acme exhibiting? (choose the BEST answer):

Options:

A.

low risk-tolerance

B.

high risk-tolerance

C.

moderate risk-tolerance

D.

medium-high risk-tolerance

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Questions 102

A person in your security team calls you at night and informs you that one of your web applications is potentially under attack from a cross-site scripting vulnerability. What do you do?

Options:

A.

tell him to shut down the server

B.

tell him to call the police

C.

tell him to invoke the incident response process

D.

tell him to analyze the problem, preserve the evidence and provide a full analysis and report

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Questions 103

Which of the following methodologies references the recommended industry standard that Information security project managers should follow?

Options:

A.

The Security Systems Development Life Cycle

B.

The Security Project And Management Methodology

C.

Project Management System Methodology

D.

Project Management Body of Knowledge

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Questions 104

Which of the following represents the BEST method of ensuring security program alignment to business needs?

Options:

A.

Create a comprehensive security awareness program and provide success metrics to business units

B.

Create security consortiums, such as strategic security planning groups, that include business unit participation

C.

Ensure security implementations include business unit testing and functional validation prior to production rollout

D.

Ensure the organization has strong executive-level security representation through clear sponsorship or the creation of a CISO role

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Questions 105

An international organization is planning a project to implement encryption technologies to protect company confidential information. This organization has data centers on three continents. Which of the following would be considered a MAJOR constraint for the project?

Options:

A.

Time zone differences

B.

Compliance to local hiring laws

C.

Encryption import/export regulations

D.

Local customer privacy laws

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Questions 106

A stakeholder is a person or group:

Options:

A.

Vested in the success and/or failure of a project or initiative regardless of budget implications.

B.

Vested in the success and/or failure of a project or initiative and is tied to the project budget.

C.

That has budget authority.

D.

That will ultimately use the system.

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Questions 107

An application vulnerability assessment has identified a security flaw in an application. This is a flaw that was previously identified and remediated on a prior release of the application. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for this recurring issue?

Options:

A.

Ineffective configuration management controls

B.

Lack of change management controls

C.

Lack of version/source controls

D.

High turnover in the application development department

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Questions 108

Your company has a “no right to privacy” notice on all logon screens for your information systems and users sign an Acceptable Use Policy informing them of this condition. A peer group member and friend comes to you and requests access to one of her employee’s email account. What should you do? (choose the BEST answer):

Options:

A.

Grant her access, the employee has been adequately warned through the AUP.

B.

Assist her with the request, but only after her supervisor signs off on the action.

C.

Reset the employee’s password and give it to the supervisor.

D.

Deny the request citing national privacy laws.

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Questions 109

To get an Information Security project back on schedule, which of the following will provide the MOST help?

Options:

A.

Upper management support

B.

More frequent project milestone meetings

C.

Stakeholder support

D.

Extend work hours

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Questions 110

Which of the following is a major benefit of applying risk levels?

Options:

A.

Risk management governance becomes easier since most risks remain low once mitigated

B.

Resources are not wasted on risks that are already managed to an acceptable level

C.

Risk budgets are more easily managed due to fewer identified risks as a result of using a methodology

D.

Risk appetite can increase within the organization once the levels are understood

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Questions 111

The company decides to release the application without remediating the high-risk vulnerabilities. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the company to release the application?

Options:

A.

The company lacks a risk management process

B.

The company does not believe the security vulnerabilities to be real

C.

The company has a high risk tolerance

D.

The company lacks the tools to perform a vulnerability assessment

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Questions 112

A newly appointed security officer finds data leakage software licenses that had never been used. The officer decides to implement a project to ensure it gets installed, but the project gets a great deal of resistance across the organization. Which of the following represents the MOST likely reason for this situation?

Options:

A.

The software license expiration is probably out of synchronization with other software licenses

B.

The project was initiated without an effort to get support from impacted business units in the organization

C.

The software is out of date and does not provide for a scalable solution across the enterprise

D.

The security officer should allow time for the organization to get accustomed to her presence before initiating security projects

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Questions 113

What is the FIRST step in developing the vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Baseline the Environment

B.

Maintain and Monitor

C.

Organization Vulnerability

D.

Define Policy

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Questions 114

A customer of a bank has placed a dispute on a payment for a credit card account. The banking system uses digital signatures to safeguard the integrity of their transactions. The bank claims that the system shows proof that the customer in fact made the payment. What is this system capability commonly known as?

Options:

A.

non-repudiation

B.

conflict resolution

C.

strong authentication

D.

digital rights management

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Questions 115

Network Forensics is the prerequisite for any successful legal action after attacks on your Enterprise Network. Which is the single most important factor to introducing digital evidence into a court of law?

Options:

A.

Comprehensive Log-Files from all servers and network devices affected during the attack

B.

Fully trained network forensic experts to analyze all data right after the attack

C.

Uninterrupted Chain of Custody

D.

Expert forensics witness

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Questions 116

While designing a secondary data center for your company what document needs to be analyzed to determine to how much should be spent on building the data center?

Options:

A.

Enterprise Risk Assessment

B.

Disaster recovery strategic plan

C.

Business continuity plan

D.

Application mapping document

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Questions 117

The process of creating a system which divides documents based on their security level to manage access to private data is known as

Options:

A.

security coding

B.

data security system

C.

data classification

D.

privacy protection

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Questions 118

An anonymity network is a series of?

Options:

A.

Covert government networks

B.

War driving maps

C.

Government networks in Tora

D.

Virtual network tunnels

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Questions 119

Which of the following is MOST important when tuning an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

Options:

A.

Trusted and untrusted networks

B.

Type of authentication

C.

Storage encryption

D.

Log retention

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Questions 120

An access point (AP) is discovered using Wireless Equivalent Protocol (WEP). The ciphertext sent by the AP is encrypted with the same key and cipher used by its stations. What authentication method is being used?

Options:

A.

Shared key

B.

Asynchronous

C.

Open

D.

None

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Questions 121

Physical security measures typically include which of the following components?

Options:

A.

Physical, Technical, Operational

B.

Technical, Strong Password, Operational

C.

Operational, Biometric, Physical

D.

Strong password, Biometric, Common Access Card

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Questions 122

Which wireless encryption technology makes use of temporal keys?

Options:

A.

Wireless Application Protocol (WAP)

B.

Wifi Protected Access version 2 (WPA2)

C.

Wireless Equivalence Protocol (WEP)

D.

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

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Questions 123

Which of the following is a countermeasure to prevent unauthorized database access from web applications?

Options:

A.

Session encryption

B.

Removing all stored procedures

C.

Input sanitization

D.

Library control

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Questions 124

Your organization provides open guest wireless access with no captive portals. What can you do to assist with law enforcement investigations if one of your guests is suspected of committing an illegal act using your network?

Options:

A.

Configure logging on each access point

B.

Install a firewall software on each wireless access point.

C.

Provide IP and MAC address

D.

Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all wireless access points.

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Questions 125

One of your executives needs to send an important and confidential email. You want to ensure that the message cannot be read by anyone but the recipient. Which of the following keys should be used to encrypt the message?

Options:

A.

Your public key

B.

The recipient's private key

C.

The recipient's public key

D.

Certificate authority key

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Questions 126

The general ledger setup function in an enterprise resource package allows for setting accounting periods. Access to this function has been permitted to users in finance, the shipping department, and production scheduling. What is the most likely reason for such broad access?

Options:

A.

The need to change accounting periods on a regular basis.

B.

The requirement to post entries for a closed accounting period.

C.

The need to create and modify the chart of accounts and its allocations.

D.

The lack of policies and procedures for the proper segregation of duties.

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Questions 127

The process for identifying, collecting, and producing digital information in support of legal proceedings is called

Options:

A.

chain of custody.

B.

electronic discovery.

C.

evidence tampering.

D.

electronic review.

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Questions 128

As a CISO you need to understand the steps that are used to perform an attack against a network. Put each step into the correct order.

1.Covering tracks

2.Scanning and enumeration

3.Maintaining Access

4.Reconnaissance

5.Gaining Access

Options:

A.

4, 2, 5, 3, 1

B.

2, 5, 3, 1, 4

C.

4, 5, 2, 3, 1

D.

4, 3, 5, 2, 1

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Questions 129

Security related breaches are assessed and contained through which of the following?

Options:

A.

The IT support team.

B.

A forensic analysis.

C.

Incident response

D.

Physical security team.

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Questions 130

Which of the following statements about Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is true?

Options:

A.

It is an IPSec protocol.

B.

It is a text-based communication protocol.

C.

It uses TCP port 22 as the default port and operates at the application layer.

D.

It uses UDP port 22

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Questions 131

Your penetration testing team installs an in-line hardware key logger onto one of your network machines. Which of the following is of major concern to the security organization?

Options:

A.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t require physical access

B.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t comply to industry regulations

C.

In-line hardware keyloggers are undetectable by software

D.

In-line hardware keyloggers are relatively inexpensive

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Questions 132

You are having a penetration test done on your company network and the leader of the team says they discovered all the network devices because no one had changed the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) community strings from the defaults. Which of the following is a default community string?

Options:

A.

Execute

B.

Read

C.

Administrator

D.

Public

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Questions 133

In terms of supporting a forensic investigation, it is now imperative that managers, first-responders, etc., accomplish the following actions to the computer under investigation:

Options:

A.

Secure the area and shut-down the computer until investigators arrive

B.

Secure the area and attempt to maintain power until investigators arrive

C.

Immediately place hard drive and other components in an anti-static bag

D.

Secure the area.

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Questions 134

The ability to hold intruders accountable in a court of law is important. Which of the following activities are needed to ensure the highest possibility for successful prosecution?

Options:

A.

Well established and defined digital forensics process

B.

Establishing Enterprise-owned Botnets for preemptive attacks

C.

Be able to retaliate under the framework of Active Defense

D.

Collaboration with law enforcement

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Questions 135

SQL injection is a very popular and successful injection attack method. Identify the basic SQL injection text:

Options:

A.

‘ o 1=1 - -

B.

/../../../../

C.

“DROPTABLE USERNAME”

D.

NOPS

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Questions 136

Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

MD5

C.

ECC

D.

RSA

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Questions 137

Your incident handling manager detects a virus attack in the network of your company. You develop a signature based on the characteristics of the detected virus. Which of the following phases in the incident handling process will utilize the signature to resolve this incident?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Identification

D.

Eradication

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Questions 138

What is the term describing the act of inspecting all real-time Internet traffic (i.e., packets) traversing a major Internet backbone without introducing any apparent latency?

Options:

A.

Traffic Analysis

B.

Deep-Packet inspection

C.

Packet sampling

D.

Heuristic analysis

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Exam Code: 712-50
Exam Name: EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO)
Last Update: Jan 18, 2025
Questions: 461

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