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4A0-100 Nokia Scalable IP Networks Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What is the most specific aggregate prefix for the following 4 subnets?

100.1.1.4/30

100.1.1.8/30

100.1.1.12/30

100.1.1.16/30

Options:

A.

100.1.1.0/25

B.

100.1.1.0/26

C.

100.1.1.0/27

D.

100.1.1.0/28

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Questions 5

Which configuration edit mode does NOT give you access to the global candidate configuration?

Options:

A.

Private

B.

Global

C.

Read-only

D.

Exclusive

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Questions 6

Which of the following is NOT a valid log source in a Nokia 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Main

B.

Security

C.

Syslog

D.

Debug

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Questions 7

Which of the following is a characteristic of Distance Vector protocols?

Options:

A.

Routers periodically send a copy of their table to their neighbors.

B.

Routers send triggered updates to the entire network.

C.

Routers know the entire network topology.

D.

Routers use Shortest Path First algorithm to calculate the optimum paths.

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Questions 8

Which of the routers is the iLER for LSP B?

4A0-100 Question 8

Options:

A.

Router R1

B.

Router R2

C.

Router R3

D.

Router R4

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Questions 9

Which of the following is a characteristic of a subnet created with a /31 prefix?

Options:

A.

There is no broadcast address on the network.

B.

The address is only used as a loopback address.

C.

This specifies a single host address.

D.

The address is only used for router IDs.

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Questions 10

Router R3 receives an LSA with the sequence number 111 from router R4 and then receives another copy of the LSA with a sequence number 112 from router R2. What does router R3 do with the LSA from R2?

4A0-100 Question 10

Options:

A.

R3 discards the LSA received from R2 and sends a copy of the LSA from its link state base to R2.

B.

R3 installs the LSA received from R2 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

C.

R3 discards the LSA received from R2 and sends an ACK to R2.

D.

R3 installs the LSA received from R2 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R2, and floods a copy to its neighbors.

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Questions 11

Which of the following routing protocols provides routing between routers R1 and R2?

4A0-100 Question 11

Options:

A.

BGP

B.

RIPv2

C.

OSPF

D.

IS-IS

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Questions 12

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding IP-filters? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

IP-filters may be applied on interface ingress, egress, or both.

B.

Multiple IP-filters can be applied in each direction.

C.

An IP-filter may only be applied to a single interface if the scope is set to template.

D.

An IP-filter may have multiple match criteria per entry.

E.

The default-action of an IP-filter is always drop.

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Questions 13

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Internet?

Options:

A.

The Internet is a global and distributed network.

B.

The Internet is a network owned by Tier 1 service providers.

C.

The Internet is an open network of networks.

D.

The Internet is a network that is advertised across the globe.

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Questions 14

Which of the following statements best characterize Distance Vector Routing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Routers periodically send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors.

B.

Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

C.

Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

D.

Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

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Questions 15

Which of the following is NOT a field in a TCP header?

Options:

A.

Source port.

B.

MTU.

C.

Sequence number.

D.

Acknowledgement number.

E.

Window size.

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Questions 16

In the diagram, R7 receives a new LSA from R3 and installs it in its link state database. 10 ms. later it receives another copy of the LSA with the same sequence number from R8. What does R7 do with the LSA received from R8?

4A0-100 Question 16

Options:

A.

R7 silently discards the LSA received from R8.

B.

R7 installs the LSA received from R8 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

C.

R7 discards the LSA received from R8 and sends an ACK to R8.

D.

R7 installs the LSA received from R8 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R8 and floods a copy to its neighbors.

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Questions 17

Which of the following are functions of VLANs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

VLANs can group ports on multiple switches into unified broadcast domains

B.

VLANs allow multiple Ethernet switches to be connected in a single collision domain

C.

VLANs can separate ports on the same switch into different broadcast domains

D.

VLANs can group ports on the same switch into different collision domains

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Questions 18

In regards to the Nokia 7750 SR-12 router, how many of the front access card slots are dedicated for Control Processors?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

7

D.

10

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Questions 19

How does a VPRN service avoid the problem overlapping IP addresses from different customers?

Options:

A.

You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. The service provider must ensure that its customers are all using discrete IP address space.

B.

Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to separate customer routing information.

C.

A VPRN will ignore IP addressing information and use MAC addressing instead which are always unique.

D.

A VPRN will translate customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme administered by the service provider.

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Questions 20

Which transport protocol and port number is used by BGP to establish and maintain a peering session with other BGP speakers?

Options:

A.

TCP port 179.

B.

UDP port 179.

C.

TCP port 22.

D.

UDP port 22.

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Questions 21

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a VPWS service?

Options:

A.

VPWS is a point-to-multipoint service.

B.

VPWS requires MAC learning in order to forward frames to the correct destination

C.

A Spanning Tree Protocol must be enabled when deploying a VPWS.

D.

VPWS treats multicast traffic similar to unicast traffic.

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Questions 22

If a customer requires a multipoint layer 2 VPN service between three or more locations which VPN service is best suited for this customer?

Options:

A.

Virtual Private Wire Service

B.

Virtual Private LAN Service

C.

Virtual Private Routed Networks

D.

Virtual Private Dark Fibre Service

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Questions 23

Where would you expect to find a P router in a service provider's network?

Options:

A.

At the edge of the provider's network facing the customer.

B.

At the edge of the customer's network facing the provider.

C.

In the core of the provider's network.

D.

On the customer premises.

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Questions 24

Which of the following are accurate statements about the PE device in a service providers MPLS network? (Select three)

Options:

A.

A PE router only connects to CE devices.

B.

A PE router only connects to P routers.

C.

A PE router connects to at least one P router.

D.

A PE router connects to at least one CE device.

E.

PE routers support many different interface types connecting to CE devices.

F.

PE routers only support Ethernet interfaces connecting to the CE.

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Questions 25

In the diagram, R3 receives an LSA with the sequence number 111 from R7 and then receives another copy of the LSA with a sequence number 112 from R1. What does R3 do with the LSA from R1?

4A0-100 Question 25

Options:

A.

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends a copy of the LSA from its link state base to R1.

B.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

C.

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends an ACK to R1.

D.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R1 and floods a copy to its neighbors.

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Questions 26

Based on the network diagram (click on the exhibit), what is the command to use on R1 to setup a static route to the network on CR1

4A0-100 Question 26

Options:

A.

config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.

config router static-route 10.2.3.1 next-hop 192.168.2.0

C.

config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.1

D.

config router static-route 10.2.3.2 next-hop 192.168.2.0

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Questions 27

Which of the following describes a static default route?

Options:

A.

A routing entry, included in the RIB by default, that forwards packets with an unknown destination to the CPM for inspection.

B.

A manual entry used when the destination address of a network is not specifically listed in the routing table.

C.

A manual entry that matches a specific /32 host address using the least cost to the destination.

D.

A default entry in the FIB used when forwarding multicast and broadcast packets.

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Questions 28

Which of the following is a characteristic of a static route?

Options:

A.

Responds in real time to network failures.

B.

Can only be used for routing within an autonomous system.

C.

Uses a hop-count metric to determine the best route to a network.

D.

Explicitly defines the next-hop based on operator input.

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Questions 29

Based on the network diagram, (click on exhibit) what is the command to use on CR1 to setup a default static route to R1?

4A0-100 Question 29

Options:

A.

config router static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.

config router static-route 0.0.0.0 next-hop 10.2.3.2

C.

config router static-route 10.2.3.2 next-hop 0.0.0.0/0

D.

config router default-route 10.2.3.2

E.

config router static-route 0.0.0.0 next-hop 192.168.2.0

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Questions 30

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding IP addressing?

Options:

A.

Classful IP addressing provides hierarchy based on variable subnet masks.

B.

Classless IP addresses provide hierarchy based on a variable length subnet mask.

C.

Classless IP addresses provide hierarchy based on fixed subnet masks of /24. /16 and/8.

D.

IP addresses provide hierarchy based on the country code and regional identifier.

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Questions 31

Which of the following are NOT examples of a VPN service offered on the Nokia 7750 SR? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

VPWS Virtual Private Wire Service

B.

VPLS Virtual Private LAN Service.

C.

VPRN Virtual Private Routed Networks.

D.

MLPPP Multi-link Point-to-Point protocol

E.

VPDFS Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service.

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Questions 32

Which of the following are examples of Time Division Multiplexing (Choose two.)?

Options:

A.

Ethernet.

B.

Token-Ring.

C.

SONET/SDH.

D.

E1 carrier.

E.

PPP

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Questions 33

Which of the following is a characteristic of the IP layer?

Options:

A.

Provides an unreliable, connectionless data transmission service.

B.

Provides a mechanism for flow control.

C.

Verifies the integrity of all received datagrams.

D.

Provides services equivalent to the OSI data link layer.

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Questions 34

What is the preference value in the routing table used for?

Options:

A.

It indicates the preferred egress interface.

B.

It differentiates between multiple routes to a destination learned by the same protocol.

C.

It differentiates between multiple routes to a destination learned by different routing protocols.

D.

It is used to differentiate local routes from remote routes.

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Questions 35

Given the associated prefix value, which of the following is a valid host address?

Options:

A.

172.16.224.255/18

B.

255.255.255.255/32

C.

224.1.2.1/8

D.

192.168.24.59/30

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Questions 36

Which of the following Ethernet rates requires an optical cable to operate?

Options:

A.

10 Mb/s Ethernet.

B.

100 Mb/s Ethernet.

C.

1000 Mb/s Ethernet .

D.

There are copper and optical versions possible for all of these Ethernet data rates.

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Questions 37

What is the basic unit of framing in SONET and the bit rate for its transmission?

Options:

A.

STS-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s

B.

STS-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s

C.

STS-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s

D.

STS-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s

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Questions 38

Which statement accurately explains the purpose of the TCP protocol and what it provides?

Options:

A.

The primary purpose of TCP is to provide reliable communications between application services.

B.

The primary purpose of TCP is to provide unreliable communications between application services

C.

The primary purpose of TCP is to provide IP routing between application services.

D.

The primary purpose of TCP is to define the correct format for the application layer such as JPEG or HTML.

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Questions 39

Which of the following is NOT an example of a Layer 2 protocol?

Options:

A.

POS

B.

IP

C.

ATM

D.

Frame Relay

E.

Ethernet

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Questions 40

Which network was created to replace ARPANET?

Options:

A.

INWG

B.

ALOHANET

C.

IETF

D.

NSFNET

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Questions 41

Which of the following best describes the function of an ARP cache within the same subnet?

Options:

A.

Used by IP to map an unknown IP address to the known hardware address of the distant host.

B.

Adds only an IP address entry for an unknown device on the same subnet.

C.

Transmits ICMP messages to multiple hosts with unknown IP addresses.

D.

Resolves the MAC address of a host device given its IP address.

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Questions 42

Which ATM adaptation layer is commonly used for transporting IP datagrams or non-real time data?

Options:

A.

AAL0

B.

AAL1

C.

AAL2

D.

AAL3/4

E.

AAL5

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Questions 43

Given the following (Network address: 208.40.224.0, Network prefix: /28.) What is the address range, including the network and broadcast addresses, for the fourth sub-network?

Options:

A.

208.40.224.0 208.40.224.255

B.

208.40.4.0 208.40.4.255

C.

208.40.224.16 208.40.224.31

D.

208.40.224.48 208.40.224.63

E.

208.40.227.0 - 208.40.224.255

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Questions 44

Which of the following is a characteristic of Port Address Translation?

Options:

A.

Resolves a Mac address given a specific IP address.

B.

Allows a single public IP address to represent multiple private IP addresses simultaneously.

C.

Maps a private address to a well known port number.

D.

Provides a one to one mapping from a private to a public address.

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Questions 45

What ICMP message type will a router use to indicate to a host that an IP datagram sourced from that host cannot be delivered?

Options:

A.

Echo Request.

B.

Destination Unreachable.

C.

Router redirect.

D.

Echo Reply.

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Questions 46

What is the meaning of carrier sense in the CSMA/CD algorithm?

Options:

A.

The host will retransmit the frame if it detects a collision during transmission.

B.

The host is able to detect the transmission speed of the Ethernet switch port to which the host is connected.

C.

The host will only transmit data when it detects that no other devices are transmitting.

D.

The host will only transmit upon a timer expiry.

E.

The host will only transmit when it receives the token.

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Questions 47

The TCP/IP and OSI models of protocol are similar in that they both have:

Options:

A.

An application and session layer.

B.

A network layer that provides a universal and consistent forwarding service.

C.

A transport layer with two protocols.

D.

An applications services layer with similar layering and service definitions.

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Questions 48

What is the purpose of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model?

Options:

A.

The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into a frame for transmission on the transmission media.

B.

The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into an IP header and routing the packet.

C.

The Data Link Layer is responsible for formatting the packet for applications such as JPEG format.

D.

The Data Link Layer is responsible for timing of the signals on the transmission media

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Questions 49

With a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the IP addresses below are valid host addresses? (Choose all that apply)

Options:

A.

17.23.119.63

B.

87.99.12.159

C.

95.11.22.93

D.

192.11.25.87

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Questions 50

Which field in the TCP header is used by the receiver to indicate the number of segments it can receive?

Options:

A.

Checksum

B.

SYN

C.

Destination port

D.

Window size

E.

MTU

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Questions 51

Which tier of Internet service providers can reach any part of the Internet without having to purchase transit

services from other Internet service providers?

Options:

A.

A Tier 1 ISP

B.

A Tier 2 ISP

C.

A Tier 3 ISP

D.

Tier 1 and Tier 2 ISPs

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Questions 52

Which compact flash on a Control/Switch processor on a Nokia 7750 SR stores the runtime image and the running configuration?

Options:

A.

SF 1

B.

SF 2

C.

SF 3

D.

Both CF1 and CF2

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Exam Code: 4A0-100
Exam Name: Nokia Scalable IP Networks
Last Update: Nov 16, 2024
Questions: 352

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