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250-580 Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist Questions and Answers

Questions 4

How does IPS check custom signatures?

Options:

A.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine continues checking for other signatures.

B.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine restarts checking for signatures.

C.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine stops checking other signatures.

D.

IPS checks for signatures listed in the table. When a detection matches an inbound or outbound traffic packet, the IPS engine logs the other signatures.

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Questions 5

What information is required to calculate storage requirements?

Options:

A.

Number of endpoints, available bandwidth, available disk space, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

B.

Number of endpoints, EAR data per endpoint per day, number of days to retain, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

C.

Number of endpoints, available bandwidth, number of days to retain, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

D.

Number of endpoints, EAR data per endpoint per day, available disk space, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

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Questions 6

Which type of event does operation:1indicate in a SEDR database search?

Options:

A.

File Deleted.

B.

File Closed.

C.

File Open.

D.

File Created.

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Questions 7

Which type of security threat continues to threaten endpoint security after a system reboot?

Options:

A.

file-less

B.

memory attack

C.

script

D.

Rootkit

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Questions 8

What is the maximum number of SEPMs a single Management Platform is able to connect to?

Options:

A.

50

B.

10

C.

5,000

D.

500

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Questions 9

Which report template type should an administrator utilize to create a daily summary of network threats detected?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Prevention Report

B.

Blocked Threats Report

C.

Network Risk Report

D.

Access Violation Report

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Questions 10

What feature is used to get a comprehensive picture of infected endpoint activity?

Options:

A.

Entity View

B.

Process View

C.

Full Dump

D.

Endpoint Dump

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Questions 11

An Application Control policy includes an Allowed list and a Blocked list. A user wants to use an application that is neither on the Allowed list nor on the Blocked list. What can the user do to gain access to the application?

Options:

A.

Email the App Control Admin

B.

Request an Override

C.

Install the application

D.

Wait for the Application Drift process to complete

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Questions 12

What permissions does the Security Analyst Role have?

Options:

A.

Trigger dumps, get & quarantine files, enroll new sites

B.

Search endpoints, trigger dumps, get & quarantine files

C.

Trigger dumps, get & quarantine files, create device groups

D.

Search endpoints, trigger dumps, create policies

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Questions 13

What does a ranged query return or exclude?

Options:

A.

Data matching the exact field names and their values

B.

Data matching a regular expression

C.

Data falling between two specified values of a given field

D.

Data based on specific values for a given field

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Questions 14

An organization is considering a single site for their Symantec Endpoint Protection environment. What are two (2) reasons that the organization should consider? (Select two)

Options:

A.

Organizational merger

B.

Sufficient WAN bandwidth

C.

Delay-free, centralized reporting

D.

24x7 admin availability

E.

E.Legal constraints

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Questions 15

When are events generated within SEDR?

Options:

A.

When an incident is selected

B.

When an activityoccurs

C.

When any event is opened

D.

When entities are viewed

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Questions 16

The SES Intrusion Prevention System has blocked an intruder's attempt to establish an IRC connection inside the firewall. Which Advanced Firewall Protection setting should an administrator enable to prevent the intruder's system from communicating with the network after the IPS detection?

Options:

A.

Enable port scan detection

B.

Automatically block an attacker's IP address

C.

Block all traffic until the firewall starts and after the firewall stops

D.

Enable denial of service detection

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Questions 17

Which ICDm role is required in order to use LiveShell?

Options:

A.

Security Analyst

B.

Administrator

C.

Viewer

D.

Any

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Questions 18

An administrator notices that some entries list that the Risk was partially removed. The administrator needs to determine whether additional steps are necessary to remediate the threat.

Where in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console can the administrator find additional information on the risk?

Options:

A.

Risk log

B.

Computer Status report

C.

Notifications

D.

Infected and At-Risk Computers report

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Questions 19

Which client log shows that a client is downloading content from its designated source?

Options:

A.

Risk Log

B.

System Log

C.

SesmLu.log

D.

Log.LiveUpdate

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Questions 20

A Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) administrator receives multiple reports that machines are experiencing performance issues. The administrator discovers that the reports happen at about the same time as the scheduled LiveUpdate.

Which setting should the SEP administrator configure to minimize I/O when LiveUpdate occurs?

Options:

A.

Change the LiveUpdate schedule

B.

Change the Administrator-defined scan schedule

C.

Disable Allow user-defined scans to run when the scan author is logged off

D.

Disable Run an Active Scan when new definitions arrive

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Questions 21

Which designation should an administrator assign to the computer configured to find unmanaged devices?

Options:

A.

Discovery Device

B.

Discovery Manager

C.

Discovery Agent

D.

Discovery Broker

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Questions 22

What type of policy provides a second layer of defense, after the Symantec firewall?

Options:

A.

Virus and Spyware

B.

Host Integrity

C.

Intrusion Prevention

D.

System Lockdown

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Questions 23

When a SEPM is enrolled in ICDm, which policy can only be managed from the cloud?

Options:

A.

LiveUpdate

B.

Firewall

C.

Network Intrusion Prevention

D.

Intensive Protection

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Questions 24

What EDR function minimizes the risk of an endpoint infecting other resources in the environment?

Options:

A.

Quarantine

B.

Block

C.

Deny List

D.

Firewall

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Questions 25

The Security Status on the console home page is failing to alert a Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) administrator when virus definitions are out of date.

How should the SEP administrator enable the Security Status alert?

Options:

A.

Lower the Security Status thresholds

B.

Raise the Security Status thresholds

C.

Change the Notifications setting to "Show all notifications"

D.

Change the Action Summary display to "By number of computers"

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Questions 26

Which alert rule category includes events that are generated about the cloud console?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

System

C.

Diagnostic

D.

Application Activity

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Questions 27

Files are blocked by hash in the deny list policy. Which algorithm is supported, in addition to MD5?

Options:

A.

SHA2

B.

SHA256

C.

SHA256 "salted"

D.

MD5 "Salted"

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Questions 28

What happens when a device fails a Host Integrity check?

Options:

A.

An antimalware scan is initiated

B.

The device is restarted

C.

The device is quarantined

D.

An administrative notification is logged

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Questions 29

What type of condition must be included in a custom incident rule in order for it to be valid?

Options:

A.

Good

B.

Rich

C.

Valid

D.

Poor

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Questions 30

Which term or expression is utilized when adversaries leverage existing tools in the environment?

Options:

A.

opportunistic attack

B.

file-less attack

C.

script kiddies

D.

living off the land

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Questions 31

Which default role has the most limited permission in the Integrated Cyber Defense Manager?

Options:

A.

Endpoint Console Domain Administrator

B.

Server Administrator

C.

Restricted Administrator

D.

Limited Administrator

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Questions 32

Which antimalware intensity level is defined by the following: "Blocks files that are most certainly bad or potentially bad files results in a comparable number of false positives and false negatives."

Options:

A.

Level 6

B.

Level 5

C.

Level 2

D.

Level 1

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Questions 33

Which type of security threat continues to threaten endpoint security after a system reboot?

Options:

A.

file-less

B.

memory attack

C.

script

D.

Rootkit

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Questions 34

What should an administrator utilize to identify devices on a Mac?

Options:

A.

UseDevViewerwhen the Device is connected.

B.

Use Devicelnfo when the Device is connected.

C.

UseDevice Managerwhen the Device is connected.

D.

UseGatherSymantecInfowhen the Device is connected.

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Questions 35

Administrators at a company share a single terminal for configuring Symantec Endpoint Protection. The administrators want to ensure that each administrator using the console is forced to authenticate using their individual credentials. They are concerned that administrators may forget to log off the terminal, which would easily allow others to gain access to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) console.

Which setting should the administrator disable to minimize the risk of non-authorized users logging into the SEPM console?

Options:

A.

Allow users to save credentials when logging on

B.

Delete clients that have not connected for specified time

C.

Lock account after the specified number of unsuccessful logon attempts

D.

Allow administrators to reset passwords

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Questions 36

An administrator decides to migrate an SES Complete hybrid environment to a fully cloud-managed one. After cleaning up on-premise group structure and policies. What is the next recommended step for migration?

Options:

A.

Export unique policies from SEPM

B.

Enroll the SEPM in ICDm

C.

Migrate the agents from ICDm

DImport unique policies in ICDm

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Questions 37

Which Discover and Deploy process requires the LocalAccountTokenFilterPolicy value to be added to the Windows registry of endpoints, before the process begins?

Options:

A.

Push Enrollment

B.

Auto Discovery

C.

Push Discovery

D.

Device Enrollment

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Questions 38

What EDR feature provides endpoint activity recorder data for a file hash?

Options:

A.

Process Dump

B.

Entity Dump

C.

Hash Dump

D.

Full Dump

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Questions 39

Which technology can prevent an unknown executable from being downloaded through a browser session?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Prevention

B.

Insight

C.

Application Control

D.

Advanced Machine Learning

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Questions 40

What is a feature of Cynic?

Options:

A.

Local Sandboxing

B.

Forwarding event data to Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)

C.

Cloud Sandboxing

D.

Customizable OS Images

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Questions 41

The Behavioral Heat Map indicates that a specific application and a specific behavior are never used together. What action can be safely set for the application behavior in a Behavioral Isolation policy?

Options:

A.

Deny

B.

Allow

C.

Delete

D.

Monitor

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Questions 42

On which platform is LiveShell available?

Options:

A.

Windows

B.

All

C.

Linux

D.

Mac

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Questions 43

How does Memory Exploit Mitigation protect applications?

Options:

A.

Injects a DLL(IPSEng32.dllorIPSEng64.dll)into protected processes and when an exploit attempt is detected, terminates the protected process to prevent the malicious code from running.

B.

Injects a DLL(UMEngx86.dll)into applications that run in user mode and if the application behaves maliciously, then SEP detects it.

C.

Injects a DLL (sysfer.dll) into processes being launched on the machine and if the process isn't trusted, prevents the process from running.

D.

Injects a DLL(IPSEng32.dll)into browser processes and protects the machine from drive-by downloads.

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Questions 44

What does the MITRE ATT&CK Matrix consist of?

Options:

A.

Problems and Solutions

B.

Attackers and Techniques

C.

Tactics and Techniques

D.

Entities and Tactics

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Questions 45

In the virus and Spyware Protection policy, an administrator sets the First action to Clean risk and sets If first action fails to Delete risk. Which two (2) factors should the administrator consider? (Select two.)

Options:

A.

The deleted file may still be in the Recycle Bin.

B.

IT Analytics may keep a copy of the file for investigation.

C.

False positives may delete legitimate files.

D.

Insight may back up the file before sending it to Symantec.

E.

A copy of the threat may still be in the quarantine.

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Exam Code: 250-580
Exam Name: Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist
Last Update: Nov 21, 2024
Questions: 150

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