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156-215.81 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 CCSA (156-215.81.20) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What is the user ID of a user that have all the privileges of a root user?

Options:

A.

User ID 1

B.

User ID 2

C.

User ID 0

D.

User ID 99

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Questions 5

Rugged appliances are small appliances with ruggedized hardware and like Quantum Spark appliance they use which operating system?

Options:

A.

Centos Linux

B.

Gaia embedded

C.

Gaia

D.

Red Hat Enterprise Linux version 5

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Questions 6

Which message indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successfully?

Options:

A.

Quick Mode Complete

B.

Aggressive Mode Complete

C.

Main Mode Complete

D.

IKE Mode Complete

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Questions 7

You want to verify if there are unsaved changes in GAiA that will be lost with a reboot. What command can be used?

Options:

A.

show unsaved

B.

show save-state

C.

show configuration diff

D.

show config-state

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Questions 8

Which of the following is NOT a policy type available for each policy package?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Access Control

C.

Desktop Security

D.

Threat Prevention

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Questions 9

Where can alerts be viewed?

Options:

A.

Alerts can be seen in SmartView Monitor

B.

Alerts can be seen in the Threat Prevention policy.

C.

Alerts can be seen in SmartUpdate.

D.

Alerts can be seen from the CLI of the gateway.

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Questions 10

Fill in the blanks: In _____ NAT, Only the ________ is translated.

Options:

A.

Static; source

B.

Simple; source

C.

Hide; destination

D.

Hide; source

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Questions 11

Which type of attack can a firewall NOT prevent?

Options:

A.

Network Bandwidth Saturation

B.

Buffer Overflow

C.

SYN Flood

D.

SQL Injection

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Questions 12

You have successfully backed up your Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

Options:

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

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Questions 13

What object type would you use to grant network access to an LDAP user group?

Options:

A.

Access Role

B.

User Group

C.

SmartDirectory Group

D.

Group Template

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Questions 14

Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode on the Check Point Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Data Loss Prevention

B.

Antivirus

C.

Application Control

D.

NAT

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Questions 15

One of major features in R80.x SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB, and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

Options:

A.

AdminC sees a lock icon which indicates that the rule is locked for editing by another administrator.

B.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.

AdminB sees a pencil icon next the rule that AdminB is currently editing.

D.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

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Questions 16

When using Automatic Hide NAT, what is enabled by default?

Options:

A.

Source Port Address Translation (PAT)

B.

Static NAT

C.

Static Route

D.

HTTPS Inspection

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Questions 17

In which scenario is it a valid option to transfer a license from one hardware device to another?

Options:

A.

From a 4400 Appliance to a 2200 Appliance

B.

From a 4400 Appliance to an HP Open Server

C.

From an IBM Open Server to an HP Open Server

D.

From an IBM Open Server to a 2200 Appliance

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Questions 18

Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.

156-215.81 Question 18

What is the most likely reason?

Options:

A.

Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa requires a special authentication key for R80 SmartConsole. Check that the correct key details are used.

B.

Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.

C.

SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and cleared any other administrator sessions.

D.

Authentication failed because Vanessa’s username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console update checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.

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Questions 19

Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?

Options:

A.

cpconfig

B.

Management Command Line

C.

SmartConsole

D.

SmartUpdate

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Questions 20

To quickly review when Threat Prevention signatures were last updated, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

Options:

A.

Protections

B.

IPS Protections

C.

Profiles

D.

ThreatWiki

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Questions 21

With URL Filtering, what portion of the traffic is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service for analysis?

Options:

A.

The complete communication is sent for inspection.

B.

The IP address of the source machine.

C.

The end user credentials.

D.

The host portion of the URL.

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Questions 22

Fill in the blank: A(n)_____rule is created by an administrator and configured to allow or block traffic based on specified criteria.

Options:

A.

Inline

B.

Explicit

C.

Implicit drop

D.

Implicit accept

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Questions 23

Aggressive Mode in IKEv1 uses how many packages for negotiation?

Options:

A.

6

B.

3

C.

depends on the make of the peer gateway

D.

5

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Questions 24

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Suppression

C.

Accounting/Suppression

D.

Accounting/Extended

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Questions 25

What data MUST be supplied to the SmartConsole System Restore window to restore a backup?

Options:

A.

Server, Username, Password, Path, Version

B.

Username, Password, Path, Version

C.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Destination Path

D.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path

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Questions 26

An administrator wishes to use Application objects in a rule in their policy but there are no Application objects listed as options to add when clicking the"+" to add new items to the "Services & Applications" column of a rule. What should be done to fix this?

Options:

A.

The administrator should drag-and-drop the needed Application objects from the Object Explorer into the new rule

B.

The "Application Control" blade should be enabled on a gateway

C.

"Applications & URL Filtering" should first be enabled on the policy layer where the rule is being created.

D.

The administrator should first create some applications to add to the rule.

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Questions 27

The default shell of the Gaia CLI is cli.sh. How do you change from the cli.sh shell to the advanced shell to run Linux commands?

Options:

A.

Execute the command 'enable' in the cli.sh shell

B.

Execute the 'conf t' command in the cli.sh shell

C.

Execute the command 'expert' in the cli.sh shell

D.

Execute the 'exit' command in the cli.sh shell

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Questions 28

Customer’s R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Export R80 configuration, clean install R80.10 and import the configuration

B.

CPUSE online upgrade

C.

CPUSE offline upgrade

D.

SmartUpdate upgrade

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Questions 29

In SmartEvent, a correlation unit (CU) is used to do what?

Options:

A.

Collect security gateway logs, Index the logs and then compress the logs.

B.

Receive firewall and other software blade logs in a region and forward them to the primary log server.

C.

Analyze log entries and identify events.

D.

Send SAM block rules to the firewalls during a DOS attack.

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Questions 30

A layer can support different combinations of blades What are the supported blades:

Options:

A.

Firewall. URLF, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

B.

Firewall (Network Access Control). Application & URL Filtering. Content Awareness and Mobile Access

C.

Firewall. NAT, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

D.

Firewall (Network Access Control). Application & URL Filtering and Content Awareness

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Questions 31

When configuring Anti-Spoofing, which tracking options can an Administrator select?

Options:

A.

Log, Alert, None

B.

Log, Allow Packets, Email

C.

Drop Packet, Alert, None

D.

Log, Send SNMP Trap, Email

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Questions 32

Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?

Options:

A.

cphaprob state

B.

cphaprob status

C.

cphaprob

D.

cluster state

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Questions 33

What protocol is specifically used for clustered environments?

Options:

A.

Clustered Protocol

B.

Synchronized Cluster Protocol

C.

Control Cluster Protocol

D.

Cluster Control Protocol

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Questions 34

Security Gateway software blades must be attached to what?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Security Gateway container

C.

Management server

D.

Management container

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Questions 35

Fill in the blank: An LDAP server holds one or more ______________.

Options:

A.

Server Units

B.

Administrator Units

C.

Account Units

D.

Account Servers

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Questions 36

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

Options:

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

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Questions 37

What are the three deployment considerations for a secure network?

Options:

A.

Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

B.

Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone

C.

Remote, Standalone, and Distributed

D.

Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

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Questions 38

Identity Awareness lets an administrator easily configure network access and auditing based on three items Choose the correct statement.

Options:

A.

Network location, the identity of a user and the active directory membership.

B.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.

Network location, the telephone number of a user and the UID of a machine

D.

Geographical location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

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Questions 39

Fill in the blank: By default, the SIC certificates issued by R80 Management Server are based on the ____________ algorithm.

Options:

A.

SHA-256

B.

SHA-200

C.

MD5

D.

SHA-128

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Questions 40

Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing?

Options:

A.

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

B.

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

C.

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

D.

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

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Questions 41

Which option will match a connection regardless of its association with a VPN community?

Options:

A.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

D.

Specific VPN Communities

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Questions 42

Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?

Options:

A.

System backup

B.

Save Configuration

C.

Migrate

D.

snapshot

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Questions 43

Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?

Options:

A.

Pre-shared secret

B.

Diffie-Hellman Public Key

C.

Symmetrical IPSec key

D.

Diffie-Hellman Private Key

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Questions 44

Which one of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Ordered policy is a sub-policy within another policy

B.

One policy can be either inline or ordered, but not both

C.

Inline layer can be defined as a rule action

D.

Pre-R80 Gateways do not support ordered layers

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Questions 45

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Gaia command line?

Options:

A.

Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_di and use CLISH for monitoring. Expert mode is used only for OS level tasks

B.

Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_cli and use expert-mode for OS-level tasks.

C.

Configuration changes should be done in expert-mode and CLISH is used for monitoring

D.

All configuration changes should be made in CLISH and expert-mode should be used for OS-level tasks.

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Questions 46

When defining group-based access in an LDAP environment with Identity Awareness, what is the BEST object type to represent an LDAP group in a Security Policy?

Options:

A.

Access Role

B.

User Group

C.

SmartDirectory Group

D.

Group Template

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Questions 47

When should you generate new licenses?

Options:

A.

Before installing contract files.

B.

After an RMA procedure when the MAC address or serial number of the appliance changes.

C.

When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address where the license is tied changes.

D.

Only when the license is upgraded.

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Questions 48

Fill in the blanks: The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the ______ layer(s) of the TCP/IP model and up to and including the ______ layer.

Options:

A.

Upper; Application

B.

First two; Internet

C.

Lower; Application

D.

First two; Transport

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Questions 49

Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

Manage and Command Line

B.

Logs and Monitor

C.

Security Policies

D.

Gateway and Servers

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Questions 50

In Unified SmartConsole Gateways and Servers tab you can perform the following functions EXCEPT ________.

Options:

A.

Upgrade the software version

B.

Open WebUI

C.

Open SSH

D.

Open service request with Check Point Technical Support

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Questions 51

What are valid authentication methods for mutual authenticating the VPN gateways?

Options:

A.

Pre-shared Secret and PKI Certificates

B.

PKI Certificates and Kerberos Tickets

C.

Pre-Shared Secrets and Kerberos Ticket

D.

PKI Certificates and DynamiciD OTP

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Questions 52

When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate. where is the package or license stored?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole installed device

B.

Check Point user center

C.

Security Management Server

D.

Security Gateway

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Questions 53

When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

Options:

A.

Security policy

B.

Inbound chain

C.

Outbound chain

D.

Decryption is not supported

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Questions 54

Identify the ports to which the Client Authentication daemon listens on by default?

Options:

A.

259, 900

B.

256, 257

C.

8080, 529

D.

80, 256

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Questions 55

Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using _______ the ________.

Options:

A.

Command line interface; WebUI

B.

Gaia Interface; GaiaUI

C.

WebUI; Gaia Interface

D.

GaiaUI; command line interface

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Questions 56

Fill in the blank: ____________ is the Gaia command that turns the server off.

Options:

A.

sysdown

B.

exit

C.

halt

D.

shut-down

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Questions 57

To enforce the Security Policy correctly, a Security Gateway requires:

Options:

A.

a routing table

B.

awareness of the network topology

C.

a Demilitarized Zone

D.

a Security Policy install

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Questions 58

Consider the Global Properties following settings:

156-215.81 Question 58

The selected option “Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)” means:

Options:

A.

UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed only through interfaces with external anti-spoofing topology and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

B.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

C.

No UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

D.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed by first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

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Questions 59

At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

Options:

A.

During the primary Security Management Server installation process.

B.

Upon creation of a certificate

C.

When an administrator decides to create one

D.

When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.

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Questions 60

Fill in the blank: SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and ___________ allow viewing of billions of consolidated logs and shows them as prioritized security events.

Options:

A.

SmartView Web Application

B.

SmartTracker

C.

SmartMonitor

D.

SmartReporter

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Questions 61

After a new Log Server is added to the environment and the SIC trust has been established with the SMS what will the gateways do?

Options:

A.

The gateways can only send logs to an SMS and cannot send logs to a Log Server. Log Servers are proprietary log archive servers.

B.

Gateways will send new firewall logs to the new Log Server as soon as the SIC trust is set up between the SMS and the new Log Server.

C.

The firewalls will detect the new Log Server after the next policy install and redirect the new logs to the new Log Server.

D.

Logs are not automatically forwarded to a new Log Server. SmartConsole must be used to manually configure each gateway to send its logs to the server.

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Questions 62

Most Check Point deployments use Gaia but which product deployment utilizes special Check Point code (with unification in R81.10)?

Options:

A.

Enterprise Network Security Appliances

B.

Rugged Appliances

C.

Scalable Platforms

D.

Small Business and Branch Office Appliances

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Questions 63

How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R80? As with all questions, select the best answer.

Options:

A.

By using IPSEC

B.

By using SIC

C.

By using ICA

D.

By using 3DES

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Questions 64

An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

Options:

A.

AD Query

B.

Browser-Based Authentication

C.

Identity Agents

D.

Terminal Servers Agent

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Questions 65

What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?

Options:

A.

A rule used to hide a server's IP address from the outside world.

B.

A rule that allows administrators to access SmartDashboard from any device.

C.

To drop any traffic destined for the firewall that is not otherwise explicitly allowed.

D.

A rule at the end of your policy to drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

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Questions 66

Security Zones do no work with what type of defined rule?

Options:

A.

Application Control rule

B.

Manual NAT rule

C.

IPS bypass rule

D.

Firewall rule

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Questions 67

Which one of the following is a way that the objects can be manipulated using the new API integration in R80 Management?

Options:

A.

Microsoft Publisher

B.

JSON

C.

Microsoft Word

D.

RC4 Encryption

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Questions 68

Access roles allow the firewall administrator to configure network access according to:

Options:

A.

remote access clients.

B.

a combination of computer or computer groups and networks.

C.

users and user groups.

D.

All of the above.

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Questions 69

Name the utility that is used to block activities that appear to be suspicious.

Options:

A.

Penalty Box

B.

Drop Rule in the rulebase

C.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM)

D.

Stealth rule

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Questions 70

Fill in the blank: Service blades must be attached to a ______________.

Options:

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Management container

C.

Management server

D.

Security Gateway container

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Questions 71

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

Options:

A.

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resident VPN client

B.

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client

C.

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same

D.

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser

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Questions 72

How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

Options:

A.

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications

B.

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application

C.

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation

D.

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client

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Questions 73

What is a role of Publishing?

Options:

A.

The Publish operation sends the modifications made via SmartConsole in the private session and makes them public

B.

The Security Management Server installs the updated policy and the entire database on Security Gateways

C.

The Security Management Server installs the updated session and the entire Rule Base on Security Gateways

D.

Modifies network objects, such as servers, users, services, or IPS profiles, but not the Rule Base

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Questions 74

The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

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Questions 75

Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

Options:

A.

Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command

B.

Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

C.

Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell (clash)19+

D.

Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services

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Questions 76

You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to permit Guest Wireless access to the Internet. However, when guest users attempt to reach the Internet, they are not seeing the splash page to accept your Terms of Service, and cannot access the Internet. How can you fix this?

156-215.81 Question 76

Options:

A.

Right click Accept in the rule, select “More”, and then check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

B.

On the firewall object, Legacy Authentication screen, check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

C.

In the Captive Portal screen of Global Properties, check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

D.

On the Security Management Server object, check the box “Identity Logging”

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Questions 77

Name the authentication method that requires token authenticator.

Options:

A.

SecureID

B.

Radius

C.

DynamicID

D.

TACACS

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Questions 78

Which option in a firewall rule would only match and allow traffic to VPN gateways for one Community in common?

Options:

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

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Questions 79

Fill in the blank Once a license is activated, a___________should be installed.

Options:

A.

Security Gateway Contract file

B.

Service Contract file

C.

License Management file

D.

License Contract file

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Questions 80

Fill in the blank: It is Best Practice to have a _____ rule at the end of each policy layer.

Options:

A.

Explicit Drop

B.

Implied Drop

C.

Explicit Cleanup

D.

Implicit Drop

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Questions 81

The Gateway Status view in SmartConsole shows the overall status of Security Gateways and Software Blades. What does the Status Attention mean?

Options:

A.

Cannot reach the Security Gateway.

B.

The gateway and all its Software Blades are working properly.

C.

At least one Software Blade has a minor issue, but the gateway works.

D.

Cannot make SIC between the Security Management Server and the Security Gateway

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Questions 82

The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.

Options:

A.

Next Generation Threat Prevention

B.

Next Generation Threat Emulation

C.

Next Generation Threat Extraction

D.

Next Generation Firewall

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Questions 83

Which of the following is used to extract state related information from packets and store that information in state tables?

Options:

A.

STATE Engine

B.

TRACK Engine

C.

RECORD Engine

D.

INSPECT Engine

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Questions 84

SmartConsole provides a consolidated solution for everything that is necessary for the security of an organization, such as the following

Options:

A.

Security Policy Management and Log Analysis

B.

Security Policy Management. Log Analysis. System Health Monitoring. Multi-Domain Security Management.

C.

Security Policy Management Log Analysis and System Health Monitoring

D.

Security Policy Management. Threat Prevention rules. System Health Monitoring and Multi-Domain Security Management.

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Questions 85

AdminA and AdminB are both logged in on SmartConsole What does it mean if AdmmB sees a lock icon on a rule? Choose the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

Rule is locked by AdminA and will be made available if the session is published

B.

Rule is locked by AdminA because the rule is currently being edited

C.

Rule is locked by AdminA and if the session is saved, the rule will be made available

D.

Rule is locked by AdminA because the save button has not been pressed

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Questions 86

A SAM rule Is implemented to provide what function or benefit?

Options:

A.

Allow security audits.

B.

Handle traffic as defined in the policy.

C.

Monitor sequence activity.

D.

Block suspicious activity.

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Questions 87

Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method?

Options:

A.

Password

B.

Certificate

C.

MD5

D.

Pre-shared secret

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Questions 88

What is the SOLR database for?

Options:

A.

Used for full text search and enables powerful matching capabilities

B.

Writes data to the database and full text search

C.

Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLE server

D.

Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database

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Questions 89

Which is NOT an encryption algorithm that can be used in an IPSEC Security Association (Phase 2)?

Options:

A.

AES-GCM-256

B.

AES-CBC-256

C.

AES-GCM-128

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Questions 90

Core Protections are installed as part of what Policy?

Options:

A.

Access Control Policy.

B.

Desktop Firewall Policy

C.

Mobile Access Policy.

D.

Threat Prevention Policy.

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Questions 91

Which type of Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Central

B.

Corporate

C.

Local

D.

Formal

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Questions 92

What are the types of Software Containers?

Options:

A.

Smart Console, Security Management, and Security Gateway

B.

Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security

C.

Security Management, Log & Monitoring, and Security Policy

D.

Security Management, Standalone, and Security Gateway

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Questions 93

When a SAM rule is required on Security Gateway to quickly block suspicious connections which are not restricted by the Security Policy, what actions does the administrator need to take?

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor should be opened and then the SAM rule/s can be applied immediately. Installing policy is not required.

B.

The policy type SAM must be added to the Policy Package and a new SAM rule must be applied. Simply Publishing the changes applies the SAM rule on the firewall.

C.

The administrator must work on the firewall CLI (for example with SSH and PuTTY) and the command 'sam block' must be used with the right parameters.

D.

The administrator should open the LOGS & MONITOR view and find the relevant log. Right clicking on the log entry will show the Create New SAM rule option.

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Questions 94

If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators? Choose the BEST answer

Options:

A.

Save and install the Policy

B.

Delete older versions of database

C.

Revert the session.

D.

Publish or discard the session

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Questions 95

Bob and Joe both have Administrator Roles on their Gaia Platform. Bob logs in on the WebUI and then Joe logs in through CLI. Choose what BEST describes the following scenario, where Bob and Joe are both logged in:

Options:

A.

Since they both are logged in on different interfaces, they will both be able to make changes.

B.

When Joe logs in. Bob will be logged out automatically.

C.

The database will be locked by Bob and Joe will not be able to make any changes.

D.

Bob will receive a prompt that Joe has logged in.

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Questions 96

What Check Point tool is used to automatically update Check Point products for the Gaia OS?

Options:

A.

Check Point INSPECT Engine

B.

Check Point Upgrade Service Engine

C.

Check Point Update Engine

D.

Check Point Upgrade Installation Service

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Questions 97

Which of the following is a valid deployment option?

Options:

A.

CloudSec deployment

B.

Disliked deployment

C.

Router only deployment

D.

Standalone deployment

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Questions 98

Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Options:

A.

Symmetric routing

B.

Failovers

C.

Asymmetric routing

D.

Anti-Spoofing

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Questions 99

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

Options:

A.

All-in-one (stand-alone)

B.

Log server

C.

SmartEvent

D.

Multi-domain management server

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Questions 100

To provide updated malicious data signatures to all Threat Prevention blades, the Threat Prevention gateway does what with the data?

Options:

A.

Cache the data to speed up its own function.

B.

Share the data to the ThreatCloud for use by other Threat Prevention blades.

C.

Log the traffic for Administrator viewing.

D.

Delete the data to ensure an analysis of the data is done each time.

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Questions 101

Which Check Point supported authentication scheme typically requires a user to possess a token?

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

Check Point password

C.

TACACS

D.

SecurlD

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Questions 102

Which one of the following is the preferred licensing model? Select the BEST answer

Options:

A.

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the gateway and has no dependency of the Security Management Server.

B.

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the Security Management Server and has no dependency on the gateway.

C.

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the Security Management Server's Mgmt-interface and has no dependency

on the gateway.

D.

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the gateway management interface and has no Security Management Server

dependency.

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Questions 103

How are the backups stored in Check Point appliances?

Options:

A.

Saved as*.tar under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

B.

Saved as*tgz under /var/CPbackup

C.

Saved as*tar under /var/CPbackup

D.

Saved as*tgz under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

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Questions 104

Which of the following is NOT a role of the SmartCenter:

Options:

A.

Status monitoring

B.

Policy configuration

C.

Certificate authority

D.

Address translation

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Questions 105

Fill in the blank: When tunnel test packets no longer invoke a response, SmartView Monitor displays _____________ for the given VPN tunnel.

Options:

A.

Down

B.

No Response

C.

Inactive

D.

Failed

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Questions 106

Which encryption algorithm is the least secured?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

AES-128

C.

DES

D.

AES-256

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Questions 107

What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

B.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

C.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Connect

D.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud

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Questions 108

Which deployment adds a Security Gateway to an existing environment without changing IP routing?

Options:

A.

Distributed

B.

Bridge Mode

C.

Remote

D.

Standalone

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Questions 109

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs

B.

Capsule Cloud

C.

Capsule Enterprise

D.

Capsule Workspace

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Questions 110

When connected to the Check Point R80 Management Server using the SmartConsole the first administrator to connect has a lock on:

Options:

A.

Only the objects being modified in the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using a special session as long as they all connect from the same LAN network.

B.

The entire Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes only if the first administrator switches to Read-only.

C.

The entire Management Database and all sessions and other administrators can connect only as Read-only.

D.

Only the objects being modified in his session of the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using different sessions.

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Questions 111

Choose what BEST describes a Session

Options:

A.

Sessions ends when policy is pushed to the Security Gateway.

B.

Starts when an Administrator logs in through SmartConsole and ends when the Administrator logs out.

C.

Sessions locks the policy package for editing.

D.

Starts when an Administrator publishes all the changes made on SmartConsole

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Questions 112

What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status:

156-215.81 Question 112

Choose the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway

B.

There is a blade reporting a problem

C.

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction

D.

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

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Questions 113

John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

Options:

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active Smartcenter

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Smartcenter

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Questions 114

What kind of NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by default?

Options:

A.

Automatic Static NAT

B.

Manual Hide NAT

C.

Automatic Hide NAT

D.

Manual Static NAT

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Questions 115

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a call by one of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet connected to the company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway. How do you review the logs to see what the problem may be?

Options:

A.

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the IP of the wireless controller

B.

Open SmartView Tracker and filter the logs for the IP address of the tablet

C.

Open SmartView Tracker and check all the IP logs for the tablet

D.

Open SmartLog and query for the IP address of the Manager’s tablet

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Questions 116

Which configuration element determines which traffic should be encrypted into a VPN tunnel vs. sent in the clear?

Options:

A.

The firewall topologies

B.

NAT Rules

C.

The Rule Base

D.

The VPN Domains

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Questions 117

Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a______________to trust a Terminal Server Identity Agent.

Options:

A.

One-time password

B.

Shared secret

C.

Certificate

D.

Token

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Questions 118

Fill in the blank RADIUS protocol uses_____to communicate with the gateway

Options:

A.

UDP

B.

CCP

C.

TDP

D.

HTTP

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Questions 119

After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

B.

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust

C.

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust

D.

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

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Questions 120

View the rule below. What does the pen-symbol in the left column mean?

156-215.81 Question 120

Options:

A.

Those rules have been published in the current session.

B.

Rules have been edited by the logged in administrator, but the policy has not been published yet.

C.

Another user has currently locked the rules for editing.

D.

The configuration lock is present. Click the pen symbol in order to gain the lock.

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Questions 121

URL Filtering employs a technology, which educates users on web usage policy in real time. What is the name of that technology?

Options:

A.

WebCheck

B.

UserCheck

C.

Harmony Endpoint

D.

URL categorization

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Questions 122

Fill in the blanks: The _______ collects logs and sends them to the _______.

Options:

A.

Log server; Security Gateway

B.

Log server; security management server

C.

Security management server; Security Gateway

D.

Security Gateways; log server

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Questions 123

Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

Options:

A.

There are two default users and neither can be deleted.

B.

There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.

C.

There is one default user that can be deleted.

D.

There is one default user that cannot be deleted.

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Exam Code: 156-215.81
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 CCSA (156-215.81.20)
Last Update: Feb 18, 2025
Questions: 411

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