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156-215.80 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R80 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following commands can be used to remove site-to-site IPSEC Security Associations (SA)?

Options:

A.

vpn tu

B.

vpn ipsec remove -l

C.

vpn debug ipsec

D.

fw ipsec tu

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Questions 5

You are unable to login to SmartDashboard. You log into the management server and run #cpwd_admin list with the following output:

156-215.80 Question 5

What reason could possibly BEST explain why you are unable to connect to SmartDashboard?

Options:

A.

CDP is down

B.

SVR is down

C.

FWM is down

D.

CPSM is down

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Questions 6

Which of the following are types of VPN communicates?

Options:

A.

Pentagon, star, and combination

B.

Star, octagon, and combination

C.

Combined and star

D.

Meshed, star, and combination

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Questions 7

When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate, where is the package or license stored

Options:

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Check Point user center

C.

Security Management Server

D.

SmartConsole installed device

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Questions 8

Which of the following is NOT a license activation method?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole Wizard

B.

Online Activation

C.

License Activation Wizard

D.

Offline Activation

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Questions 9

An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway managed by the same Security Management Server. While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret the administrator found that the check box to enable pre-shared secret is shared and cannot be enabled. Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?

Options:

A.

IPsec VPN blade should be enabled on both Security Gateway.

B.

Pre-shared can only be used while creating a VPN between a third party vendor and Check Point Security Gateway.

C.

Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SMS.

D.

The Security Gateways are pre-R75.40.

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Questions 10

Fill in the blanks: VPN gateways authenticate using ___________ and ___________ .

Options:

A.

Passwords; tokens

B.

Certificates; pre-shared secrets

C.

Certificates; passwords

D.

Tokens; pre-shared secrets

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Questions 11

To install a brand new Check Point Cluster, the MegaCorp IT department bought 1 Smart-1 and 2 Security Gateway Appliances to run a cluster. Which type of cluster is it?

Options:

A.

Full HA Cluster

B.

High Availability

C.

Standalone

D.

Distributed

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Questions 12

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

Options:

A.

Monitor

B.

CLI.sh

C.

Read-only

D.

Bash

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Questions 13

Which Check Point software blade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing access control through identity-based policies?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Identity Awareness

C.

Application Control

D.

URL Filtering

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Questions 14

The Captive Portal tool:

Options:

A.

Acquires identities from unidentified users.

B.

Is only used for guest user authentication.

C.

Allows access to users already identified.

D.

Is deployed from the Identity Awareness page in the Global Properties settings.

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Questions 15

Fill in the blank: Licenses can be added to the License and Contract repository ________ .

Options:

A.

From the User Center, from a file, or manually

B.

From a file, manually, or from SmartView Monitor

C.

Manually, from SmartView Monitor, or from the User Center

D.

From SmartView Monitor, from the User Center, or from a file

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Questions 16

Fill in the blank: The IPS policy for pre-R80 gateways is installed during the _______ .

Options:

A.

Firewall policy install

B.

Threat Prevention policy install

C.

Anti-bot policy install

D.

Access Control policy install

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Questions 17

Fill in the blanks: The _________ collects logs and sends them to the _________ .

Options:

A.

Log server; security management server

B.

Log server; Security Gateway

C.

Security management server; Security Gateway

D.

Security Gateways; log server

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Questions 18

Fill in the blank: The R80 feature ________ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period.

Options:

A.

Block Port Overflow

B.

Local Interface Spoofing

C.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring

D.

Adaptive Threat Prevention

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Questions 19

Fill in the blank: A new license should be generated and installed in all of the following situations EXCEPT when ________.

Options:

A.

The license is attached to the wrong Security Gateway

B.

The existing license expires

C.

The license is upgraded

D.

The IP address of the Security Management or Security Gateway has changed

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Questions 20

You have enabled “Full Log” as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information. What is the MOST likely reason?

Options:

A.

Logging has disk space issues. Change logging storage options on the logging server or Security Management Server properties and install database.

B.

Data Awareness is not enabled.

C.

Identity Awareness is not enabled.

D.

Logs are arriving from Pre-R80 gateways.

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Questions 21

What are the three essential components of the Check Point Security Management Architecture?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateway

B.

SmartConsole, SmartUpdate, Security Gateway

C.

Security Management Server, Security Gateway, Command Line Interface

D.

WebUI, SmartConsole, Security Gateway

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Questions 22

Packages and licenses are loaded from all of these sources EXCEPT

Options:

A.

Download Center Web site

B.

UserUpdate

C.

User Center

D.

Check Point DVD

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Questions 23

Which of the following statements is TRUE about R80 management plug-ins?

Options:

A.

The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.

B.

Installing a management plug-in requires a Snapshot, just like any upgrade process.

C.

A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new products.

D.

Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in.

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Questions 24

With which command can you view the running configuration of Gaia-based system.

Options:

A.

show conf-active

B.

show configuration active

C.

show configuration

D.

show running-configuration

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Questions 25

Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

Options:

A.

Organization Unit

B.

Country

C.

Common name

D.

User container

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Questions 26

Which of the following is NOT an integral part of VPN communication within a network?

Options:

A.

VPN key

B.

VPN community

C.

VPN trust entities

D.

VPN domain

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Questions 27

Which product correlates logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEvent

C.

SmartUpdate

D.

SmartDashboard

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Questions 28

Which options are given on features, when editing a Role on Gaia Platform?

Options:

A.

Read/Write, Read Only

B.

Read/Write, Read only, None

C.

Read/Write, None

D.

Read Only, None

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Questions 29

Identify the ports to which the Client Authentication daemon listens on by default?

Options:

A.

259, 900

B.

256, 257

C.

8080, 529

D.

80, 256

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Questions 30

From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

Options:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

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Questions 31

Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Internal Certificate Authority

B.

Token

C.

One-time Password

D.

Certificate

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Questions 32

Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing?

Options:

A.

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

B.

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

C.

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

D.

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

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Questions 33

Fill in the blank: An LDAP server holds one or more ______________.

Options:

A.

Server Units

B.

Administrator Units

C.

Account Units

D.

Account Servers

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Questions 34

What are the three deployment considerations for a secure network?

Options:

A.

Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

B.

Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone

C.

Remote, Standalone, and Distributed

D.

Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

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Questions 35

What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

Options:

A.

Monitoring the status of processes

B.

Sending and receiving logs

C.

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server

D.

Generating and modifying certificates

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Questions 36

Which repositories are installed on the Security Management Server by SmartUpdate?

Options:

A.

License and Update

B.

Package Repository and Licenses

C.

Update and License & Contract

D.

License & Contract and Package Repository

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Questions 37

Fill in the blank: ____________ is the Gaia command that turns the server off.

Options:

A.

sysdown

B.

exit

C.

halt

D.

shut-down

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Questions 38

Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members in CLI?

Options:

A.

show cluster state

B.

show active cluster

C.

show clusters

D.

show running cluster

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Questions 39

Examine the sample Rule Base.

156-215.80 Question 39

What will be the result of a verification of the policy from SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

No errors or Warnings

B.

Verification Error. Empty Source-List in Rule 5 (Mail Inbound)

C.

Verification Error. Rule 4 (Web Inbound) hides Rule 6 (Webmaster access)

D.

Verification Error. Rule 7 (Clean-Up Rule) hides Implicit Clean-up Rule

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Questions 40

When logging in for the first time to a Security management Server through SmartConsole, a fingerprint is saved to the:

Options:

A.

Security Management Server’s /home/.fgpt file and is available for future SmartConsole authentications.

B.

Windows registry is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

C.

There is no memory used for saving a fingerprint anyway.

D.

SmartConsole cache is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

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Questions 41

What are the three types of UserCheck messages?

Options:

A.

inform, ask, and block

B.

block, action, and warn

C.

action, inform, and ask

D.

ask, block, and notify

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Questions 42

Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?

Options:

A.

SmartManager

B.

SmartConsole

C.

Security Gateway

D.

Security Management Server

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Questions 43

John is the administrator of a R80 Security Management server managing r R77.30 Check Point Security Gateway. John is currently updating the network objects and amending the rules using SmartConsole. To make John’s changes available to other administrators, and to save the database before installing a policy, what must John do?

Options:

A.

Logout of the session

B.

File > Save

C.

Install database

D.

Publish the session

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Questions 44

How are the backups stored in Check Point appliances?

Options:

A.

Saved as*.tar under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

B.

Saved as*tgz under /var/CPbackup

C.

Saved as*tar under /var/CPbackup

D.

Saved as*tgz under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

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Questions 45

You want to verify if there are unsaved changes in GAiA that will be lost with a reboot. What command can be used?

Options:

A.

show unsaved

B.

show save-state

C.

show configuration diff

D.

show config-state

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Questions 46

Which option would allow you to make a backup copy of the OS and Check Point configuration, without stopping Check Point processes?

Options:

A.

All options stop Check Point processes

B.

backup

C.

migrate export

D.

snapshot

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Questions 47

Fill in the blanks: There are ________ types of software containers ________.

Options:

A.

Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security

B.

Three; Security gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management

C.

Two; security management and endpoint security

D.

Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway

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Questions 48

Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

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Questions 49

According to Check Point Best Practice, when adding a non-managed Check Point Gateway to a Check Point security solution what object SHOULD be added? A(n):

Options:

A.

Gateway

B.

Interoperable Device

C.

Externally managed gateway

D.

Network Node

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Questions 50

When using GAiA, it might be necessary to temporarily change the MAC address of the interface eth 0 to 00:0C:29:12:34:56. After restarting the network the old MAC address should be active. How do you configure this change?

Options:

A.

As expert user, issue these commands:# IP link set eth0 down# IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56# IP link set eth0 up

B.

Edit the file /etc/sysconfig/netconf.C and put the new MAC address in the field(conf:(conns:(conn:hwaddr (“00:0C:29?:12:34:56”)

C.

As expert user, issue the command:# IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56

D.

Open the WebUI, select Network > Connections > eth0. Place the new MAC address in the field Physical Address, and press Apply to save the settings.

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Questions 51

You have configured SNX on the Security Gateway. The client connects to the Security Gateway and the user enters the authentication credentials. What must happen after authentication that allows the client to connect to the Security Gateway's VPN domain?

Options:

A.

SNX modifies the routing table to forward VPN traffic to the Security Gateway.

B.

An office mode address must be obtained by the client.

C.

The SNX client application must be installed on the client.

D.

Active-X must be allowed on the client.

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Questions 52

What is the purpose of Priority Delta in VRRP?

Options:

A.

When a box is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

B.

When an Interface is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

C.

When an Interface fails, Effective Priority = Priority - Priority Delta

D.

When a box fails, Effective Priority = Priority - Priority Delta

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Questions 53

On R80.10 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default Log Server uses port:

Options:

A.

18210

B.

18184

C.

257

D.

18191

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Questions 54

Vanessa is expecting a very important Security Report. The Document should be sent as an attachment via e-mail. An e-mail with Security_report.pdf file was delivered to her e-mail inbox. When she opened the PDF file, she noticed that the file is basically empty and only few lines of text are in it. The report is missing some graphs, tables and links. Which component of SandBlast protection is her company using on a Gateway?

Options:

A.

SandBlast Threat Emulation

B.

SandBlast Agent

C.

Check Point Protect

D.

SandBlast Threat Extraction

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Questions 55

You have two rules, ten users, and two user groups in a Security Policy. You create database version 1 for this configuration. You then delete two existing users and add a new user group. You modify one rule and add two new rules to the Rule Base. You save the Security Policy and create database version 2. After a while, you decide to roll back to version 1 to use the Rule Base, but you want to keep your user database. How can you do this?

Options:

A.

Run fwm dbexport -1 filename. Restore the database. Then, run fwm dbimport -1 filename to import the users.

B.

Run fwm_dbexport to export the user database. Select restore the entire database in the Database Revision screen. Then, run fwm_dbimport.

C.

Restore the entire database, except the user database, and then create the new user and user group.

D.

Restore the entire database, except the user database.

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Questions 56

All R77 Security Servers can perform authentication with the exception of one. Which of the Security Servers can NOT perform authentication?

Options:

A.

FTP

B.

SMTP

C.

HTTP

D.

RLOGIN

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Questions 57

When defining QoS global properties, which option below is not valid?

Options:

A.

Weight

B.

Authenticated timeout

C.

Schedule

D.

Rate

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Questions 58

Which the following type of authentication on Mobile Access can NOT be used as the first authentication method?

Options:

A.

Dynamic ID

B.

RADIUS

C.

Username and Password

D.

Certificate

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Questions 59

You want to establish a VPN, using certificates. Your VPN will exchange certificates with an external partner. Which of the following activities sh you do first?

Options:

A.

Create a new logical-server object to represent your partner's CA

B.

Exchange exported CA keys and use them to create a new server object to represent your partner's Certificate Authority (CA)

C.

Manually import your partner's Certificate Revocation List.

D.

Manually import your partner's Access Control List.

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Questions 60

Which R77 GUI would you use to see number of packets accepted since the last policy install?

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartView Tracker

C.

SmartDashboard

D.

SmartView Status

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Questions 61

Which of the following actions do NOT take place in IKE Phase 1?

Options:

A.

Peers agree on encryption method.

B.

Diffie-Hellman key is combined with the key material to produce the symmetrical IPsec key.

C.

Peers agree on integrity method.

D.

Each side generates a session key from its private key and peer's public key.

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Questions 62

What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?

Options:

A.

fw ctl stat

B.

clusterXL stat

C.

clusterXL status

D.

cphaprob stat

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Questions 63

In SmartEvent, what are the different types of automatic reactions that the administrator can configure?

Options:

A.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, External Script, SNMP Trap

B.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, Block Services, SNMP Trap

C.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, External Script, SNMP Trap

D.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, Packet Capture, SNMP Trap

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Questions 64

Which command can you use to enable or disable multi-queue per interface?

Options:

A.

cpmq set

B.

Cpmqueue set

C.

Cpmq config

D.

Set cpmq enable

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Questions 65

Where would an administrator enable Implied Rules logging?

Options:

A.

In Smart Log Rules View

B.

In SmartDashboard on each rule

C.

In Global Properties under Firewall

D.

In Global Properties under log and alert

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Questions 66

Using mgmt_cli, what is the correct syntax to import a host object called Server_1 from the CLI?

Options:

A.

mgmt_cli add-host “Server_1” ip_address “10.15.123.10” --format txt

B.

mgmt_cli add host name “Server_1” ip_address “10.15.123.10” --format json

C.

mgmt_cli add object-host “Server_1” ip_address “10.15.123.10” --format json

D.

mgmt_cli add object “Server_1” ip_address “10.15.123.10” --format json

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Questions 67

What must a Security Administrator do to comply with a management requirement to log all traffic accepted through the perimeter Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

In Global Properties > Reporting Tools check the box Enable tracking all rules (including rules marked as None in the Track column). Send these logs to a secondary log server for a complete logging history. Use your normal log server for standard logging for troubleshooting.

B.

Install the View Implicit Rules package using SmartUpdate.

C.

Define two log servers on the R77 Gateway object. Lof Implied Rules on the first log server. Enable Log Rule Base on the second log server. Use SmartReporter to merge the two log server records into the same database for HIPPA log audits.

D.

Check the Log Implied Rules Globally box on the R77 Gateway object.

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Questions 68

Which remote Access Solution is clientless?

Options:

A.

Checkpoint Mobile

B.

Endpoint Security Suite

C.

SecuRemote

D.

Mobile Access Portal

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Questions 69

Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using multiple LDAP servers?

Options:

A.

You achieve a faster access time by placing LDAP servers containing the database at remote sites

B.

Information on a user is hidden, yet distributed across several servers

C.

You achieve compartmentalization by allowing a large number of users to be distributed across several servers

D.

You gain High Availability by replicating the same information on several servers

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Questions 70

In which VPN community is a satellite VPN gateway not allowed to create a VPN tunnel with another satellite VPN gateway?

Options:

A.

Pentagon

B.

Combined

C.

Meshed

D.

Star

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Questions 71

Where do we need to reset the SIC on a gateway object?

Options:

A.

SmartDashboard > Edit Gateway Object > General Properties > Communication

B.

SmartUpdate > Edit Security Management Server Object > SIC

C.

SmartUpdate > Edit Gateway Object > Communication

D.

SmartDashboard > Edit Security Management Server Object > SIC

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Questions 72

Fill in the blanks: In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is ________ all traffic. However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ________ all traffic.

Options:

A.

Accept; redirect

B.

Accept; drop

C.

Redirect; drop

D.

Drop; accept

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Questions 73

NAT can NOT be configured on which of the following objects?

Options:

A.

HTTP Logical Server

B.

Gateway

C.

Address Range

D.

Host

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Questions 74

Mesh and Star are two types of VPN topologies. Which statement below is TRUE about these types of communities?

Options:

A.

A star community requires Check Point gateways, as it is a Check Point proprietary technology.

B.

In a star community, satellite gateways cannot communicate with each other.

C.

In a mesh community, member gateways cannot communicate directly with each other.

D.

In a mesh community, all members can create a tunnel with any other member.

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Questions 75

Fill in the blank: Once a license is activated, a ________ should be installed.

Options:

A.

License Management file

B.

Security Gateway Contract file

C.

Service Contract file

D.

License Contract file

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Questions 76

What are the three tabs available in SmartView Tracker?

Options:

A.

Network & Endpoint, Management, and Active

B.

Network, Endpoint, and Active

C.

Predefined, All Records, Custom Queries

D.

Endpoint, Active, and Custom Queries

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Questions 77

Provide very wide coverage for all products and protocols, with noticeable performance impact.

156-215.80 Question 77

How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level? Select the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

Set High Confidence to Low and Low Confidence to Inactive.

B.

Set the Performance Impact to Medium or lower.

C.

The problem is not with the Threat Prevention Profile. Consider adding more memory to the appliance.

D.

Set the Performance Impact to Very Low Confidence to Prevent.

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Questions 78

Fill in the blanks: A security Policy is created in _________ , stored in the _________ , and Distributed to the various __________ .

Options:

A.

Rule base, Security Management Server, Security Gateways

B.

SmartConsole, Security Gateway, Security Management Servers

C.

SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateways

D.

The Check Point database, SmartConsole, Security Gateways

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Exam Code: 156-215.80
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator R80
Last Update: Nov 27, 2023
Questions: 525
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